Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới)

Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 10 năm 2023 – 2024 bao gồm 11 đề thi giữa kì 1 có đáp án hướng dẫn giải chi tiết, chính xác và bảng ma trận đề thi kèm theo File nghe. Thông qua đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 quý thầy cô có thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo để ra đề thi cho các em học sinh của mình.

Bạn đang đọc: Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới)

TOP 11 Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 bao gồm đề thi sách Global Success, Friends Global được biên soạn rất đa dạng với mức độ câu hỏi khác nhau. Hi vọng qua tài liệu này sẽ là người bạn đồng hành giúp các em học sinh lớp 10 dễ dàng ôn tập, hệ thống kiến thức, luyện giải đề, rồi so sánh kết quả thuận tiện hơn. Vậy sau đây là trọn bộ 11 đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2023 – 2024 mời các bạn cùng theo dõi. Bên cạnh đó các bạn xem thêm bộ đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Vật lí 10, bộ đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Ngữ văn 10.

Bộ đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10 năm 2023 – 2024 (Có đáp án, ma trận)

Đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10 Global success

Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 10

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO……… TRƯỜNG THPT ……………………

KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10 Thời gian: 60 phút (không tính thời gian giao đề)

I. LISTENING: (2.0 pts)

Bài nghe:

PART 1: For questions 1-4, listen to Dave talking about his experience of doing a volunteer work. Choose the best option A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversation twice.

Question 1. When did Dave participate in the campaign?

A. last year
B. last weekend
C. last week
D. last month

Question 2. What is the name of the campaign?

A. Green issues
B. Green living
C. Go Green
D. Green house

Question 3. Who was the leader of each group?

A. teacher
B. John
C. Mary
D. Alice

Question 4. How many trees did they plant in their school?

A. 1
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15

PART 2: For questions 5-8, Listen again and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).You will hear the conversation twice.

Question 5. Dave and his schoolmates planted trees in 4 schools.

Question 6. They only planted small trees.

Question 7. Dave’s team planted 50 trees in total.

Question 8. Dave was tired but still happy.

II. LANGUAGE: (3.0 pts)

PART 1:Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9. A. housework B. reduce C. famous D. music

Question10. A. perform B. enjoy C. laundry D. adopt

PART 2: Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11. They decided to Japan for their summer holiday.

A. going
B. to go
C. go
D. to going

Question 12. Doing housework helps family bonds.

A. strengthen
B. damage
C. divide
D. support

Question 13. Oh, I forgot my course book this morning. Can I borrow yours? I it back to you after using it.

A. will give
B. give
C. am going to give
D. going to give

Question 14. My sister usually charge of doing the washing-up in her family.

A. take
B. is taking
C. takes
D. will take

Question 15. A lot of students in my school are going to take part the Go Green Weekend event.

A. for
B. of
C. in
D. on

Question 16. We’ll organize more activities to local people’s awareness of environmental issues.

A. take
B. get
C. have
D. raise

Question 17. Bamboo is considered to be one of the most building materials.

A. eco-friendly
B. chemical
C. harmful

D. polluted

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 18. Sue plans (A) study (B) abroad next year according to (C) her parent’s advice.(D)

Question 19. I really love his music because (A) he is a talent (B) artist who (C)can write music and play many musical(D) instruments.

Question 20. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.

Tom was disappointed because he was eliminated in the third round of the competition .

A. performed
B.preferred
C. voted
D. removed

I. READING : (2.5pts)

PART 1: Read the passage and circle the best option for each the numbered blanks from 21to 25.

River pollution (21) _ when pollutants are not removed from sewage and are discharged into the river. River water is a very important source of freshwater required to sustain life. We need a constant supply of fresh water for (22) , cooking and washing. Animals living near the river, as well as fishes and aquatic plants, also depend (23) clean river water. When heavy rainfall occurs, pollutants accumulated within the boundaries of the catchment area may be washed into river channels. These pollutants include a (24) of agrochemicals like fertilizers (25) insecticides .

Question 21. A. occurs B. occur C. occurred D. had occurred

Question 22. A. drink B. drinking C. to drink D.drunk

Question 23. A. in B. at C. on D.for

Question 24. A. vary B. variety C.various D.variously

Question 25. A. and B. or C. but D.so

PART 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (from 26 to 30).

Adele has been one of the world’s most well-known singers and songwriters in recent years. Born in North London in 1988, Adele started singing at a young age and she was mostly influenced by the Spice Girls. At the age of 16, Adele composed her first hit song, “Hometown Glory”.

When she was a student at the British School for Performing Arts and Technology, she recorded three songs for a class project. All these songs later were posted on MySpace.com and became very popular. As a result, she was offered a record deal from XL Recordings after her graduation. Her first album “19” debuted at number one on the British charts in 2008.

In March 2008, she did a short tour in America and soon her international career began. In 2011, her second album, “21” came out. The music on this album was different from the soul music of “19”. It was influenced by American country music, which Adele was listening to during her tour.

In 2012, she wrote and recorded “Skyfall” for the James Bond film of the same name. The song sold more than two million copies worldwide and for it, Adele won the Academy Award for Best Original Song. Since 2012, Adele has won many more awards. She has many fans including other famous singers because they admire her unique voice and her passion for music.

(Adapted from “Adele” by Learning Resource Network)

Question 26. Adele began writing her first song .

A. when she was 16
B. at a young age
C. after her graduation
D. when she did a short tour in America

Question 27. Adele’s first album “19” was .

A. country music
B. classical music
C. pop music
D. the soul music

Question 28. After Adele graduated from her art school, .

A. she posted her songs on My Space
B. she started singing and writing songs
C. she got a contract with a recording label
D. she started her career in America

Question 29. The word “came out” in paragraph 3 can be replaced by .

A. was composed
B. was released
C. was offered
D. was awarded

Question 30. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to .

A. the song “Skyfall”
B. the Academy Award
C. Adele’s best song
D. the 2012 James Bond film

II. WRITING: (2.5pts) PART 1:

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.

Question 31. The students collect the rubbish in the schoolyard twice a week.

The rubbish ……………………………………………………………

Question 32. Her parents don’t allow her to join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

Her parents don’t let ……………………………………………………

Combine each pair of sentences into one by using the given words.

Question 33. Tim is sleeping. You can’t speak to him at the moment. (SO)

…………………………………………………….

Question 34. My mum does the cooking. My dad does the heavy lifting. (AND)

…………………………………………………….

PART 2: Write an email to your friend, Mary; and talk about your family routines. To: Mary
Subject: My family routines Hi Mary,

How are you? We’re all doing fine here. You asked me about my family routines. Well, we have a number of routines to help us learn life skills as well as build family bonds. Here are three main ones.

……………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………

What do you think about my family routines? Please, write back soon and let me know.

Best wishes,

*Suggested ideas:

-household chores

-first

-second

-finally

Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global success

I.TRẮC NGHIỆM: (Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 đ)

1.B	2.C	3.A	4.B	5.T	6.F	7.F	8.T	9.B	10.C
11.B	12.A	13.A	14.C	15.C	16.D	17.A	18.B	19.B	20.D
21.A	22.B	23.C	24.B	25.A	26.A	27.D	28.C	29.B	30.A

II. TỰ LUẬN 

Part 1: (Mỗi câu tự luận 0,375 đ)

Question 3 1. The rubbish in the schoolyard is collected twice a week by the students.

Question 3 2. Her parents don’t let her join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

Question 3 3. Tim is sleeping, so you can’t speak to him at the moment.

Question 3 4. My mum does the cooking, and my dad does the heavy lifting.

Ma trận đề thi giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global success

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ I – NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10

SỐ CÂU	ĐIỂM	NỘI DUNG/ CHỦ ĐỀ, KIẾN THỨC	MỨC ĐỘ							GC
			NB	TH		VDT		VDC
8	2	Listening	4	3		1
2	0,5	Stress (Units 1, 2 ,3)	2
4	1	Grammar (Grammar points from Unit 1 to Unit 3)	2	1		1				Error Identification
6	1,5	Vocabulary (Unit1, 2 , 3,) (Synonym; word form; word meaning; preposition; collocation)	4	1		1				Error Identification (Word Form)
5	1,25	Cloze text (Reading and choose the best option to fit each numbered blank ) Unit 2	2	2		1
5	1,25	Reading comprehension (Reading and choose the correct answer to each of the questions) Unit 3	2	2		1
		Writing(2.5pts)
2	0,75	Combination (Conjunctions)			2
2	0,75	Transformation (To Infinitive/ Bare-Infinitive ;passive voice)					2
	1	Theme writing (Unit 1)							X	A paragraph
			16		11		7

TEST SPECIFICATION: MID- FIRST- TERM TEST –ENGLISH 10- GLOBAL SUCCESS

School Year: 2023-2024

Questions	TESTED CONTENTS	LEVELS					NOTES
		Knowledge	Understanding		Application	High Application
1	Multiple Choice (Listening)	X					Level A2/ Topics related to Units 1-2-3
2		X
3			X
4					X
5	True- False (Listening)	X
6			X
7		X
8			X
9	Stress	X					Stress in two -syllable words (in Units 1, 2 & 3)
10	Stress	X					Stress in two -syllable words (in Units 1, 2 & 3)
11	Vocabulary	X					Word meaning
12	Vocabulary	X					Collocation
13	Vocabulary	X					Error Identification Word form
14	Vocabulary		X				Word meaning
15	Vocabulary	X					Preposition
16	Grammar	X					To-Infinitive/ Bare-Infinitive
17	Grammar	X					Present simple/ Present continuous
18	Grammar				X		Will/ Be going to
19	Grammar		X				Error Identification To Infinitive
20	Vocabulary/ Synonym/ Antonym				X		Root words in the text
21	Cloze Text (Level A2)	X					Tense
22		X					Verb form
23				X			Preposition
24					x		Part of speech
25				x			conjunction
26	Reading comprehension (Level A2)	X					Getting details
27		x					Getting details
28					x		Getting details
29				X			Reference (Vocabulary)
30				X			Reference (pronoun)
31	Combination			X			conjunction
32				X			conjunction
33	Transformation				X		Bare-Infinitive/To-inf
34					X		Passive voice
	Theme writing					X	A paragraph
TOTAL		16		11	7	One Writing

Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global

Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Anh 10

I. PHONETICS

Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

1.

A. fair
B. straight
C. waistcoat
D. explain

2.

A. narrow
B. shallow
C. follow
D. allow

Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.

3.

A. anxious
B. boring
C. envious
D. ashamed

4.

A. confused
B. upset
C. delighted
D. frightened

II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.

5. My brother is at ____ home. He’s playing ______ guitar.

A. x- the
B. x – x
C. the – the
D. the – x

6. Don’t forget your raincoat – it ___________.

A. rains
B. is raining
C. rain
D. raining

7. My sister ___________ very hard for the exam. Unfortunately, she got a bad mark in English.

A. is working
B. works
C. was working
D. worked

8. While we ___________ take my children to the park, our car broke down.

A. took
B. were taking
C. takes
D. are taking

9. When my friends get home, they __________ a mouse in the kitchen.

A. find
B. found
C. is finding
D. were finding

10. It was _______________ to have met such a great movie star.

A. thrilled
B. annoying
C. thrilling
D. annoyed

11. The books he wrote about famous mountain climbers are his greatest ________.

A. achieve
B. achievement
C. achievable
D. achiever

12. He is famous for his ____________ as a mountain climber.

A. accomplish
B. accomplished
C. accomplishing
D. accomplishment

13. Halloween was probably the most _______________ film I have ever seen.

A. frightened
B. exhausting
C. frightening
D. exhausted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following sentences.

14. It really makes me cross to see people dropping litter in the street.

A. annoyed
B. envious
C. relieved
D. suspicious

15. The view from the top of the mountain was very beautiful.

A. stunning
B. terrifying
C. huge
D. filthy

16. The campsite was very dirty when we arrived. It was a horrible mess!

A. tiny
B. tragic
C. filthy
D. starving

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following sentences.

17. The hotel was incredible with breaktaking views and excellent cuisine.

A. unimpressive
B. unspoiled
C. unadorned
D. untouched

18. It would be tragic if her talent remained unrecognized.

A. very sad
B. very bad
C. very shocking
D. very happy

19. They were photographed separately and then as a group.

A. independently
B. individually
C. relatively
D. together

Find the mistake and correct it.

20. He’s laughing, but he isn’t understanding the joke. ______________

21. The lesson was so bored that I fell asleep. ______________

22. The prepare for our trip were quick because we only planned to stay for two nights. _________

Use the correct form of verbs in brackets.

23. When Sarah (drop) ___________ her phone on the floor, it (break) ___________.

24. I (lose) _________ my watch while I (play) _________ volleyball in the park.

25. At midnight, Rose __________________ (still do) her homework.

III. READING

Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

Although living in another country can be an (26) ___________ adventure, it is sometimes proves to be a difficult experience. Many things are new and different – not only the language and culture but also everyday things like where to buy stamps or when banks are open. For a person who is used (27) __________ in control of their world these new experiences can make them feel helpless, (28) _______ and frustrated.

Many of those who start a life somewhere else often go through certain stages before they feel at home in their new (29) ________. The first few weeks after arrival in another country is full of positive feelings and excitement. Then reality sets in and can make you feel angry and impatient. Some people blame their new home for such feelings. Eventually, however, most newcomers settle (30) _________ and begin to adapt.

26.

A. excited
B. exciting
C. pleasure
D. thrilled

27.

A. been
B. to being
C. to be
D. being

28.

A. confusing
B. confused
C. confuse
D. confusion

29.

A. surroundings
B. settings
C. atmospheres
D. situations

30.

A. in
B. off
C. of
D. back

Read the passage, and choose the best following word for each space.

mild natural located scenery dissolve

Phu Quoc Island is the largest island in Vietnam which is 31)____________ in the Gulf of Thailand.

Phu Quoc Island is quite large and has two distinct seasons including the rainy season and the dry season. Whatever the season, the weather in Phu Quoc is always cool and 32)___________. The beach is very beautiful with white sand and clear blue water, so many people come to Phu Quoc for vacation. In addition to the beautiful 33)___________, the cuisine on Phu Quoc Island is also diverse, including fresh seafood processed into delicious and attractive dishes.

If you have the opportunity to visit Phu Quoc Island, you should watch the sunrise once. Watching the sunrise on the sea is really beautiful, but in Phu Quoc Island it is even more wonderful. As the sun rises, you would feel the cold gradually becoming warm. This makes the spirit extremely relaxing and comfortable, all anxiety can 34)______________.

With the unique 35)______________ beauty of Phu Quoc, you must come here once.

IV. WRITING

Rewrite the following sentences, using the suggestions.

36. The boat hit some rocks as it was sailing toward the shore.

=> The boat ____________when it ____________.

37. While you were shopping, I tidied your room.

=> You _____________ when ________________.

38. My brother really likes football and never misses a match. (crazy)

=> My brother _____________ football and never misses a match.

39. I am not interested in what you are thinking. (care)

=> I ____________ what you are thinking.

40. Young children love watching animated films. (popular)

=> Animated films _____________ young children.

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10

1. A 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. C

11. B 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. 20. doesn’t understand

21. boring 22. preparation 23. dropped/broke 24. lost/were playing 25. was still doing 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A

31. located 32. mild 33. scenery 34. dissolve 35. natural 36. was sailing toward the shore/ hit some rocks. 37. were shopping /I tidied your room. 38. is crazy about 39. don’t care about 40. are popular among

………….

Tải file tài liệu để xem thêm trọn bộ Đề thi giữa kì 1 Anh 10