Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2023 – 2024 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống

Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Global Success năm 2023 – 2024 bao gồm 8 đề thi giữa kì 1 có đáp án hướng dẫn giải chi tiết, chính xác và bảng ma trận đề thi kèm theo File nghe. Thông qua đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Global Success quý thầy cô có thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo để ra đề thi cho các em học sinh của mình.

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TOP 8 Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Global Success được biên soạn rất đa dạng với mức độ câu hỏi khác nhau. Hi vọng qua tài liệu này sẽ là người bạn đồng hành giúp các em học sinh lớp 10 dễ dàng ôn tập, hệ thống kiến thức, luyện giải đề, rồi so sánh kết quả thuận tiện hơn. Vậy sau đây là trọn bộ 8 đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Global Success năm 2023 – 2024 mời các bạn cùng theo dõi. Bên cạnh đó các bạn xem thêm bộ đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Ngữ văn 10 KNTT.

Đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10 Global success (Có đáp án, ma trận)

    Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 10

    SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO………
    TRƯỜNG THPT ……………………

    KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ I NĂM HỌC 20232024 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10

    Thời gian: 60 phút (không tính thời gian giao đề)

    I. LISTENING: (2.0 pts)

    Bài nghe:

    PART 1: For questions 1-4, listen to Dave talking about his experience of doing a volunteer work. Choose the best option A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversation twice.

    Question 1. When did Dave participate in the campaign?

    A. last year
    B. last weekend
    C. last week
    D. last month

    Question 2. What is the name of the campaign?

    A. Green issues
    B. Green living
    C. Go Green
    D. Green house

    Question 3. Who was the leader of each group?

    A. teacher
    B. John
    C. Mary
    D. Alice

    Question 4. How many trees did they plant in their school?

    A. 1
    B. 6
    C. 9
    D. 15

    PART 2: For questions 5-8, Listen again and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).You will hear the conversation twice.

    Question 5. Dave and his schoolmates planted trees in 4 schools.

    Question 6. They only planted small trees.

    Question 7. Dave’s team planted 50 trees in total.

    Question 8. Dave was tired but still happy.

    II. LANGUAGE: (3.0 pts)

    PART 1:Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

    Question 9. A. housework B. reduce C. famous D. music

    Question10. A. perform B. enjoy C. laundry D. adopt

    PART 2: Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

    Question 11. They decided to Japan for their summer holiday.

    A. going
    B. to go
    C. go
    D. to going

    Question 12. Doing housework helps family bonds.

    A. strengthen
    B. damage
    C. divide
    D. support

    Question 13. Oh, I forgot my course book this morning. Can I borrow yours? I it back to you after using it.

    A. will give
    B. give
    C. am going to give
    D. going to give

    Question 14. My sister usually charge of doing the washing-up in her family.

    A. take
    B. is taking
    C. takes
    D. will take

    Question 15. A lot of students in my school are going to take part the Go Green Weekend event.

    A. for
    B. of
    C. in
    D. on

    Question 16. We’ll organize more activities to local people’s awareness of environmental issues.

    A. take
    B. get
    C. have
    D. raise

    Question 17. Bamboo is considered to be one of the most building materials.

    A. eco-friendly
    B. chemical
    C. harmful

    D. polluted

    Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.

    Question 18. Sue plans (A) study (B) abroad next year according to (C) her parent’s advice.(D)

    Question 19. I really love his music because (A) he is a talent (B) artist who (C)can write music and play many musical(D) instruments.

    Question 20. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.

    Tom was disappointed because he was eliminated in the third round of the competition .

    A. performed
    B.preferred
    C. voted
    D. removed

    I. READING : (2.5pts)

    PART 1: Read the passage and circle the best option for each the numbered blanks from 21to 25.

    River pollution (21) _ when pollutants are not removed from sewage and are discharged into the river. River water is a very important source of freshwater required to sustain life. We need a constant supply of fresh water for (22) , cooking and washing. Animals living near the river, as well as fishes and aquatic plants, also depend (23) clean river water. When heavy rainfall occurs, pollutants accumulated within the boundaries of the catchment area may be washed into river channels. These pollutants include a (24) of agrochemicals like fertilizers (25) insecticides .

    Question 21. A. occurs B. occur C. occurred D. had occurred

    Question 22. A. drink B. drinking C. to drink D.drunk

    Question 23. A. in B. at C. on D.for

    Question 24. A. vary B. variety C.various D.variously

    Question 25. A. and B. or C. but D.so

    PART 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (from 26 to 30).

    Adele has been one of the world’s most well-known singers and songwriters in recent years. Born in North London in 1988, Adele started singing at a young age and she was mostly influenced by the Spice Girls. At the age of 16, Adele composed her first hit song, “Hometown Glory”.

    When she was a student at the British School for Performing Arts and Technology, she recorded three songs for a class project. All these songs later were posted on MySpace.com and became very popular. As a result, she was offered a record deal from XL Recordings after her graduation. Her first album “19” debuted at number one on the British charts in 2008.

    In March 2008, she did a short tour in America and soon her international career began. In 2011, her second album, “21” came out. The music on this album was different from the soul music of “19”. It was influenced by American country music, which Adele was listening to during her tour.

    In 2012, she wrote and recorded “Skyfall” for the James Bond film of the same name. The song sold more than two million copies worldwide and for it, Adele won the Academy Award for Best Original Song. Since 2012, Adele has won many more awards. She has many fans including other famous singers because they admire her unique voice and her passion for music.

    (Adapted from “Adele” by Learning Resource Network)

    Question 26. Adele began writing her first song .

    A. when she was 16
    B. at a young age
    C. after her graduation
    D. when she did a short tour in America

    Question 27. Adele’s first album “19” was .

    A. country music
    B. classical music
    C. pop music
    D. the soul music

    Question 28. After Adele graduated from her art school, .

    A. she posted her songs on My Space
    B. she started singing and writing songs
    C. she got a contract with a recording label
    D. she started her career in America

    Question 29. The word “came out” in paragraph 3 can be replaced by .

    A. was composed
    B. was released
    C. was offered
    D. was awarded

    Question 30. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to .

    A. the song “Skyfall”
    B. the Academy Award
    C. Adele’s best song
    D. the 2012 James Bond film

    II. WRITING: (2.5pts) PART 1:

    Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.

    Question 31. The students collect the rubbish in the schoolyard twice a week.

    The rubbish ……………………………………………………………

    Question 32. Her parents don’t allow her to join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

    Her parents don’t let ……………………………………………………

    Combine each pair of sentences into one by using the given words.

    Question 33. Tim is sleeping. You can’t speak to him at the moment. (SO)

    …………………………………………………….

    Question 34. My mum does the cooking. My dad does the heavy lifting. (AND)

    …………………………………………………….

    PART 2: Write an email to your friend, Mary; and talk about your family routines. To: Mary
    Subject: My family routines Hi Mary,

    How are you? We’re all doing fine here. You asked me about my family routines. Well, we have a number of routines to help us learn life skills as well as build family bonds. Here are three main ones.

    ……………………………………………………………….

    …………………………………………………………………………

    ……………………………………………………………….

    …………………………………………………………………………

    What do you think about my family routines? Please, write back soon and let me know.

    Best wishes,

    *Suggested ideas:

    -household chores

    -first

    -second

    -finally

    Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global success

    I.TRẮC NGHIỆM: (Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 đ)

    1.B

    2.C

    3.A

    4.B

    5.T

    6.F

    7.F

    8.T

    9.B

    10.C

    11.B

    12.A

    13.A

    14.C

    15.C

    16.D

    17.A

    18.B

    19.B

    20.D

    21.A

    22.B

    23.C

    24.B

    25.A

    26.A

    27.D

    28.C

    29.B

    30.A

    II. TỰ LUẬN 

    Part 1: (Mỗi câu tự luận 0,375 đ)

    Question 3 1. The rubbish in the schoolyard is collected twice a week by the students.

    Question 3 2. Her parents don’t let her join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

    Question 3 3. Tim is sleeping, so you can’t speak to him at the moment.

    Question 3 4. My mum does the cooking, and my dad does the heavy lifting.

    Ma trận đề thi giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global success

    MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ I – NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

    Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10

    SỐ CÂU

    ĐIỂM

    NỘI DUNG/ CHỦ ĐỀ, KIẾN THỨC

    MỨC ĐỘ

    GC

    NB

    TH

    VDT

    VDC

    8

    2

    Listening

    4

    3

    1

    2

    0,5

    Stress

    (Units 1, 2 ,3)

    2

    4

    1

    Grammar

    (Grammar points from Unit 1 to Unit 3)

    2

    1

    1

    Error Identification

    6

    1,5

    Vocabulary (Unit1, 2 , 3,)

    (Synonym; word form; word meaning; preposition; collocation)

    4

    1

    1

    Error Identification

    (Word Form)

    5

    1,25

    Cloze text

    (Reading and choose the best option to fit each numbered blank ) Unit 2

    2

    2

    1

    5

    1,25

    Reading comprehension

    (Reading and choose the correct answer to each of the questions) Unit 3

    2

    2

    1

    Writing(2.5pts)

    2

    0,75

    Combination

    (Conjunctions)

    2

    2

    0,75

    Transformation

    (To Infinitive/ Bare-Infinitive ;passive voice)

    2

    1

    Theme writing (Unit 1)

    X

    A paragraph

    16

    11

    7

    TEST SPECIFICATION: MID- FIRST- TERM TEST –ENGLISH 10- GLOBAL SUCCESS

    School Year: 2023-2024

    Questions

    TESTED CONTENTS

    LEVELS

    NOTES

    Knowledge

    Understanding

    Application

    High Application

    1

    Multiple Choice

    (Listening)

    X

    Level A2/

    Topics related to Units 1-2-3

    2

    X

    3

    X

    4

    X

    5

    True- False

    (Listening)

    X

    6

    X

    7

    X

    8

    X

    9

    Stress

    X

    Stress in two -syllable words

    (in Units 1, 2 & 3)

    10

    Stress

    X

    Stress in two -syllable words

    (in Units 1, 2 & 3)

    11

    Vocabulary

    X

    Word meaning

    12

    Vocabulary

    X

    Collocation

    13

    Vocabulary

    X

    Error Identification

    Word form

    14

    Vocabulary

    X

    Word meaning

    15

    Vocabulary

    X

    Preposition

    16

    Grammar

    X

    To-Infinitive/ Bare-Infinitive

    17

    Grammar

    X

    Present simple/ Present continuous

    18

    Grammar

    X

    Will/ Be going to

    19

    Grammar

    X

    Error Identification

    To Infinitive

    20

    Vocabulary/

    Synonym/ Antonym

    X

    Root words in the text

    21

    Cloze Text

    (Level A2)

    X

    Tense

    22

    X

    Verb form

    23

    X

    Preposition

    24

    x

    Part of speech

    25

    x

    conjunction

    26

    Reading comprehension

    (Level A2)

    X

    Getting details

    27

    x

    Getting details

    28

    x

    Getting details

    29

    X

    Reference (Vocabulary)

    30

    X

    Reference (pronoun)

    31

    Combination

    X

    conjunction

    32

    X

    conjunction

    33

    Transformation

    X

    Bare-Infinitive/To-inf

    34

    X

    Passive voice

    Theme writing

    X

    A paragraph

    TOTAL

    16

    11

    7

    One Writing

    ………….

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