Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7 năm 2023 – 2024 sách Chân trời sáng tạo

Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7 Friends plus năm 2023 – 2024 bao gồm 4 đề kiểm tra có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo bảng ma trận đề thi.

Bạn đang đọc: Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7 năm 2023 – 2024 sách Chân trời sáng tạo

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 7 học kì 1 Friends plus được biên soạn với cấu trúc đề rất đa dạng, bám sát nội dung chương trình học trong sách giáo khoa. Hi vọng đây sẽ là tài liệu hữu ích cho quý thầy cô và các em ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức, chuẩn bị sẵn sàng cho kì thi cuối học kì 1 lớp 7 sắp tới. Vậy sau đây là nội dung chi tiết 4 đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 Friends plus năm 2023 – 2024, mời các bạn cùng theo dõi tại đây.

TOP 4 Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7 Friends plus (Có đáp án, ma trận)

1. Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7 Friends plus – Đề 1

1.1 Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7

TRƯỜNG ………………………………. Họ và tên: ………………………………. Lớp: ………….

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 Môn: Tiếng Anh 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

A.LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (0.4 pt

A. cooked B. passed C. helped D. cleaned

A. orphanage B. word C. horse D. pork

II. Odd one out. (0.4 pt)

3. A. sunburn B. pimple C. puppet D. acne

4. A. milk B. portrait C. sculpture D. painting

II. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (1.2 pts)

5. My mum spends two hours in the garden everyday. Her hobby is …………..

A. gardening
B. collecting stamps
C. making models
D. reading books

6. They like ………….. stamps.

A. collected
B. collects
C. collecting
D. collect

7. My brother often …………….. computer games in his free time.

A. collects
B. does
C. goes
D. plays

8. I and my father ………….. a lot of trees last month.

A. plant
B. planted
C. planting
D. plants

9. I have to go to the market now. There isn’t …………… food for our lunch.

A. a lot of
B. some
C. any
D. much

10. My younger brother isn’t as busy …………. me.

A. like
B. different from
C. different
D. as

B. READING (2.0 pts):

I. Read the text about “healthy living” and fill in the blanks using the words from the box. (1 pt)

like                        is         in            expensive                        places

Do you want to be fitter and healthier? Would you (11)……………… to look younger? Do you want to feel more relaxed? Then try a few days at a health farm. Health farm are becoming one of the most popular (12)………………… for a short break. I went to Henley Manor for a weekend. It’s the largest health farm (13)……….. the country but it isn’t the most expensive. After two days of exercise and massage I feel ten times better. But the best thing for me was the food. It was all very healthy of course but It was (14)…………….… too! If you are looking for something a little cheaper, try a winter break. Winter (15)………………….. the darkest and coldest season of the year, and it can also be the worst time for your body. We all eat too much and we don’t take enough exercise. A lot of health farms offer lower prices from Monday to Friday from November to March.

II. Read the text about “community service” and circle the best answer. (1 pt)

Choosing to volunteer takes up some of your time. Some people say that they do not have time to help others, so they don’t volunteer. But scientists say giving time to help others benefits us.

The first benefit of volunteering is that it helps us learn to be flexible. Volunteers have to be ready for changes and stay flexible when solving problems. Second, volunteering can improve our health because it requires us to be active. A report found that Americans who volunteer 100 hours or more a year are the healthiest people in the country. Third, volunteers have opportunities to develop more relationships. They often work in teams, and team members get to know each other and sometimes even become friends. Moreover, volunteers often help needy people, so they may feel thankful for what they have. For these reasons, volunteers are generally positive and are less likely to become depressed.

So if you have not joined a volunteer activity yet, think about it. You are likely to benefit from doing so.

16. True, False statement.

	T	F
People shouldn’t take part in volunteer work.

17. What is the first benefit of volunteering?

A. It helps us learn to be flexible.
B. Volunteering can improve our health.
C. Volunteers have opportunities to develop more relationships.

18. How many benefits are mentioned in the passage?

A. two
B. three
C. four

19. Which sentence is NOT TRUE?

A. There are some good reasons why you should do volunteer work.
B. Volunteering can improve our health.
C. There is one benefit from doing volunteer work.

20. What does the word “it” in line six refer to?

A. volunteer
B. volunteering
C. benefit

C. WRITING (2.0 pts)

I. Find the mistakes in the following s.

……….

1.2 Đáp án đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7

i. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0 pts)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
D	B	C	A	A	C	D	B	C	D

B. READING (2.0 pts):

I. Read the text about “healthy living” and fill in the blanks using the words from the box. (1 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

11. like 12. place 13. in 14. expensive 15. is

II. Read the text about “community service” and circle the best answer. (1 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

16	17	18	19	20
F	A	C	C	B

C. WRITING (2.0 pts)

I. Find the mistakes in the following sentences (0.4 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

21. C 22. B

II. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged (0.8 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

23. Which do you like better, milk or lemonade?

24. I think Donald Duck is not as interesting as Donald Duck.

25. My mom and I love gardening.

26. My house is different from Nam’s house.

III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt)

Each right answer is 0,4 pt

27. Our school club collected plastic bottles for recycling two months ago.

28. How many apples do we need?

D. LISTENING (2 pts)

I. Listen to a text about “Music and Arts” and tick T/F. (1 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

29. F 30. T 31. T 32. F 33. T

II. Listen to the text about “Food and drink” and circle the best answer. (1 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. B

Listening tape

I.

My favorite singer is Dina Paucar. She is a very successful singer. She is from Peru and she is very popular all over the world. She is 38 years old, she is married and she has two kids. She is also a composer, her most popular songs are “Que lindo son tus ojos”, “Ami madrecita”, etc. In addition, Dina is a public person; she works in her concert and in her record company. When she is free, she works on television with advertising and promoting health campaigns. Dina is now very rich but she is a very generous person. She loves helping people a lot, especially poor and sick children. Like me, most of the Peruvian people admire Dina because she is the symbol of the generosity and success in Peru.

II.

The next time you are in a supermarket, pay attention to what you see and smell. Usually fresh fruit and vegetables are near the entrances. Is there a reason for this? Yes, there is. Fresh food near the entrance makes people think that all the items in the shop are fresh. Why is there a good smell of baking near the bread shelves? The bread is in plastic bags, but the smell (from bakery section) makes people feel hungry and they buy more. And what is next to the checkout? How many bags of sugar or rice do you see there? How many eggs? None? This is the place for sweets and magazines. People stand to wait for payment, see the sweets and magazines and buy them, without thinking about how much money they are spending.

1.3 Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7

PARTS	No. of Ques	Mark	Task types	Re		Com		Low App		High App
				TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0)	2	0.4	Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form the others Sound: /d/, /t/, /id/; /ɔː/, /ɜː/	0,4
	3	0,6	MCQs: Circle the best option. Words relating to hobbies, music and art, food and drink.	0,4		0,2
	5	1,0	MCQs: Circle the best option: verbs, comparisons, tenses, verb after like/ dislike, quantities.	0,8		0,2
READING (2,0)	5	1,0	Read the text and fill in the blank (with suitable words from the box)	0,8		0,2
	5	1,0	Read the text and circle the best answer:			0,8		0,2
WRITING (2,0)	2	0,4	(Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English	0,4
	4	0,8	(Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged						0,8
	2	0,8	(Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given.								0,8
LISTENING (2,0)	5	1.0	– Listen and tick T/ F	1.0
	5	1.0	– Listen and circle the best answer			1,0
TOTAL(8,0)	38	8.0		3,8		2,4		1,0		0,8
SPEAKING (2,0)	2	0,4	Introduction						0,4
	5	1,0	Topic speaking		0,2		0,6		0,2
	3	0,6	Questions and Answer						0,4		0,2
Grand Total (10,0)	48	10,0		4,0		3,0		2,0		1,0

SPECIFICATION FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 7)

School year: 2023-2024

(60-minute Test)

PARTS	CONTENTS	No. of Ques	Mark	Task types	Re		Com		Low App		High App
					TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0)	Pronunciation: –Sen 1: final sounds /d/ & /t/ -Sen 2: sounds /ɔː/& /ɜː/	2	0.4	Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form the others	0,4
	Vocabulary: -Sen 3: 1 word about music and art -Sen 4: 1 word about food and drink	2	0,4	Odd one out	0,4
	Vocabulary: -Sen 5: 1 word about hobbies,	1	0,2	MCQs: Circle the best option			0,2
	Grammar points: -Sen 6: 1 sentence about V-ing after verbs of liking and disliking -Sen 7: 1 sentence about verbs: make/ do/ collect/ play -Sen 8: 1 sentence about past simple –Sen 9: 1 sentence about quantities. -Sen 10: 1 sentence about comparisons	5	1,0	MCQs: Circle the best option	0,8		0,2
READING (2,0)	-Sen 11: 1 word about a verb -Sen 12: 1 word about a noun -Sen 13: 1 word about a preposition -Sen 14: 1 word about an adjective -Sen 15: 1 word about verb	5	1,0	(Cloze test) Read the text about “healthy living” and fill in the blank (with suitable words from the box)	0,8		0,2
	-Sen 16: T/F statement – Sen 17: Choose the best answer for a WH-question -Sen 18: Choose the best answer for a WH-question -Sen 19: Find the NOT TRUE statement -Sen 20: What does the word “…” in the text refer to?	5	1,0	( Reading comprehetsion) Read the text about “community service” and circle the best answer			0,8		0,2
WRITING (2,0)	-Sen 21: 1 sentence about verb -Sen 22: 1 sentence about simple past	2	0,4	(Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English	0,4
	-Sen 23: -1 sentence about prefer/ like better -Sen 24: 1 sentence about comparisons -Sen 25: 1 sentence about simple sentences. -Sen 26: 1 sentence about comparisons	4	0,8	(Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged						0,8
	-Sen 27: 1 sentence about simple past -Sen 28: 1 question with How much/ many	2	0,8	(Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given.								0,8
LISTENING (2,0)	-Sen 29-33: T/F statement	5	1.0	– Listen to a text about “Music and Arts” and tick T/F	1.0
	-Sen 34-38: Choose the best answer for a WH-question	5	1.0	– Listen to the text about “Food and drink” and circle the best answer			10
TOTAL(8,0)		38	8.0		3,8		2,4		1,0		0,8
SPEAKING (2,0)	– Introduce personal information (hobby, school, houses, family, teacher, subject..)	2	0,4	Introduction						0,4
	-Randomly take one vocab topic (hobby/healthy/healthy living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink) -5 minutes for preparation – Look at the pictures and answer the question “What is this?” -Spell one word – two vocabs in situation -Student point the word from teacher’s explanation	5	1,0	Topic speaking		0,2		0,6		0,2
	-Answer three questions about one of the topics ((hobby/healthy/healthy living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink)	3	0,6	Questions and Answers						0,4		0,2
Grand Total (10,0)		48	10,0		4,0		3,0		2,0		1,0

2. Đề kiểm tra cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 – Friends plus

2.1 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7

PHÒNG GD&ĐT……… TRƯỜNG……….

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ I NĂM 2023 – 2024 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 7 Thời gian…. phút

Listen to five airport announcements. Choose the correct answer, A, B or C.

Announcement A

1. What time does the flight begin?

A. 9:00

B. 9:15

C. 9:25

Announcement B

2. What do passengers need to have?

A. Boarding passes

B. Passports

C. Both A and B

Announcement C

3. Which gate should Gemma and Ryan come to right immediately?

A. Gate

B. Gate 14

C. Gate 40

Announcement D

4. What is the flight number?

A. Flight KL1050

B. Flight KN1051

C. Flight KN1055

Announcement E

5. What is the temperature in New York now?

A. 73º

B. 67º

C. 76º

Listen again and complete the table with the words in the box.

Flight  EZ9753     bad weather      gate 6       gate 21         18:30

Announcement A

6. This flight is delayed by two hours because of _______________.

Announcement B

7. Flight FR3421 now boarding at _______________ .

Announcement C

8. This is the final boarding call for passengers Gemma and Ryan Grey flying to Athens on ____________ .

Announcement D

9. All passengers with express boarding tickets and passengers travelling with young children please go to _______________.

Announcement E

10. People have landed at JFK airport in New York where the local time is _______________ .

PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from others. Write A, B, C or D in the blank.

1.A. climb   B. like   C. find   D. sit

2. A. head   B. meat   C. wear   D. bear

3.A. sand   B. hand   C. man   D. small

Choose the bold word that has a different stress pattern from the others. Write A, B, or C in the blank.

4.

A. happy

B. slowly

C. polite

D. badly

5.

A. comfortable

B. successful

C. creative

D. enormous

USE OF ENGLISH

Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence.

1. The woman was ______ on the bed.

A. lying

B. kicking

C. holding

2. Her students _________ books at 9 a.m. yesterday.

A. was reading

B. were reading

C. read

3. The phone ______ while she was sleeping.

A. ring

B. rang

C. was ringing

4. We need to be ______ to take photos of wild animals.

A. polite

B. patient

C. rude

5. They can think _________ to find the new solution.

A. happily

B. creatively

C. rudely

6. The woman ______ at the supermarket last Sunday.

A. was

B. were

C. be

7. In the past, _________ people couldn’t attend universities.

A. cruel

B. poor

C. rich

8. There______ many toys in his bedroom when he was a child.

A. was

B. be

C. were

9. My sister _________ there for one hour and waited for him.

A. met

B. stayed

C. gave

10. My family members _________ happy with the film last night.

A. were

B. was

C. be

11. In 1500 Leonardo da Vinci _________ a flying machine.

A. wrote

B. ruled

C. invented

READING

Read the passage and decide whether each statement is True or False. Write True or False in each blank.

Vietnamese Mid-Autumn Festivals

The way people celebrate Mid-Autumn Festival differs from generation to generation as society keeps moving forward. Although traditional Mid-Autumn celebration activities for children and families are not so popular nowadays as they used to be decades ago, the timeless cultural value of truth, goodness, and beauty are always honoured, and practiced in a variety of ways.

There is something new about today’s Mid-Autumn Festival. It’s the presence of colourful electronic lanterns that play music, aside from the traditional star-shaped paper-and-bamboo lanterns, and a lot of baked and white mooncakes with flavours that better meet consumers’ changing tastes. Just like many other traditions, Mid-Autumn Festival has changed to catch up with the modern life.

1. People celebrate Mid-Autumn Festival differently.

2. The culture is not honoured.

3. Modern lanterns can play music.

4. Mooncakes are served in the festival.

Choose the option that best completes each blank in the passage. Write A, B, or C in the blank.

Thanksgiving Day

American (5) the Thanksgiving holiday on the fourth Thursday of November. Families meet for a special meal including turkey, corn, potatoes and pumpkin pie – a (6) dessert. Then families do activities together or watch TV.

The Thanksgiving festival celebrates the first harvest of the Pilgrims – a group of religious settlers. In September 1620, they (7) England for America on a ship – the Mayflower. That winter, when they arrived, they were very cold and didn’t have enough food. So half of them died. A Native American leader, Squanto, (8) the settlers. His people showed the settlers how to grow corn and vegetables and how to hunt animals for food.

In Autumn 1621, after a good harvest, the Pilgrims held a big celebration to thank God. They invited the Native Americans. For three days, they ate together. Also, they (9) games, sang songs and danced. It was the start of a long tradition.

5.

A. celebrate

B. play

C. get

6.

A. kind

B. uncommon

C. popular

7.

A. arrived

B. left

C. went

8.

A. came

B. cooked

C. visited

9.

A. played

B. met

C. helped

WRITING

Rearrange the words in a correct order to make a complete sentence.

1. his parents / talk / Tom/ did / to / ?

2. she / apples / does / bananas / or / like / ?

3. visited / Jeremy / summer / Vung Tau / last / .

4. go / your / where / mother / did / shopping / ?

5. we / last weekend / ate / a / at / restaurant / .

Rewrite the following sentences with the given beginning in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged.

6. It is difficult to take photos of wild animals.

It is not ________________________

7. Sportsmen usually move fast.

Sportsmen don’t usually ____________________

8. Photographers need to think creative to take good photos.

Photographers think ____________________________________________

9. You need to wait for a long time.

You need to be ____________________________________________

10. Photographers also need to sit quietly.

Photographers should find a _______________________________________

2.2 Đáp án đề thi cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7

LISTENING

1. C

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. bad weather

7. gate 21

8. flight EZ9753

9. gate 6

10. 18:30

Listening Transcript:

A: Good morning. This is an announcement for all passengers travelling on the 9:25 flight TOM1223 to Rome. This flight is delayed by two hours because of bad weather.

B: Would all passengers travelling to Tokyo on flight FR3421 please have your boarding passes and passports ready for boarding. Flight FR3421 now boarding at gate 21.

C: This is the final boarding call for passengers Gemma and Ryan Grey flying to Athens on flight EZ9753. Your flight is ready to leave. Please go to gate 14 immediately. The doors of the plane will close in five minutes. Final boarding call for passengers Gemma and Ryan Grey.

D: This is an announcement for passengers travelling to Amsterdam on flight KL1050. Will all passengers with express boarding tickets and passengers travelling with young children please go to gate 6 for boarding. That’s all passengers with express boarding tickets and passengers travelling with young children go to gate 6 for boarding. Thank you.

E: Good evening, ladies and gentlemen. We have landed at JFK airport in New York where the local time is 18:30 and the temperature is 76º. We hope you have enjoyed your flight with American Airlines this evening and wish you a very safe journey to your final destination.

PRONUNCIATION

1. D

2. B

3. D

4. C

5. A

USE OF ENGLISH

1. A	2. B	3. B	4. B	5. B	6. A
7. B	8. C	9. B	10. A	11. C

READING

1. True	2. False		3. True		4. True
5. A	6. C	7. B		8. C	9. A

WRITING

1. Did Tom talk to his parents?

2. Does she like apples or bananas?

3. Jeremy visited Vung Tau last summer.

4. Where did your mother go shopping?

5. Last weekend, we ate at a restaurant.

6. It is not easy to take photos of wild animals.

7. Sportsmen don’t usually move slowly.

8. Photographers think creatively to take good photos.

9. You need to be patient.

10. Photographers should find a quiet place to sit.

………………

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