Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới)

Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2023 – 2024 gồm 11 đề kiểm tra có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo bảng ma trận đề thi.

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Đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh 10 theo chương trình mới được biên soạn với cấu trúc đề rất đa dạng, bám sát nội dung chương trình học trong sách giáo khoa Global Success, Friends Global, Explore New Worlds. Hi vọng đây sẽ là tài liệu hữu ích cho quý thầy cô và các em ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức, chuẩn bị sẵn sàng cho học kì 1 lớp 10 sắp tới. Vậy sau đây là nội dung chi tiết TOP 11 đề thi kiểm tra học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2023 – 2024, mời các bạn cùng theo dõi tại đây. Bên cạnh đó các bạn xem thêm: bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Ngữ văn 10, đề thi học kì 1 Toán 10.

Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2023 – 2024

    1. Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Explore New Worlds

    1.1 Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10

    TRƯỜNG THPT…

    ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I – NĂM HỌC 2023 -2024

    Môn: Tiếng Anh 10 – Bộ sách: Cánh diều

    Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

    I. Fill in the each numbered blank with one suitable word.

    Television now plays such an (1)_______ role in so many people’s life that it is essential for us to decide whether it is good or (2)_______.

    First of all, television is not only the convenient source of (3)_______,but also a rather cheap one. For a family of four, for example, it is more convenient as well as cheaper to sit comfortably at home than to go out.

    There is no transport to arrange. They don’t have to pay for (4)_______ seats at the theatre or in the cinema. All they have to do is to press a (5)_______, and they can see plays and films of every kind, not to mention political discussion and the latest exciting football matches. Some people , however, say that this is just where the danger is . The TV viewer needs to do nothing. He doesn’t even use his legs.

    1. A. main B. importance C. important D. necessary

    2. A. best B. bad C. worse D. better

    3. A. news B. culture C. films D. entertainment

    4. A. much B. cheap C. expensive D. hard

    5. A. button B. light C. screen D. control

    II. Vocabulary and Grammar

    6. A …………..is a spoken or written piece of information you send to another person.

    A. software
    B. receiver
    C. computer
    D. message

    7. Newspapers and magazines present information ………………………… .

    A. aurally
    B. visually
    C. aurally and visually
    D. orally

    8. He…………..his driving test yesterday. Up to now, he……………….three times.

    A. failed / has failed
    B. was failing / will failed
    C. has failed / failed
    D. failed / is failing

    9. ……………………..is this building? ~ It’s about two hundred years old.

    A. How long
    B. How far
    C. How old
    D. How

    10. By the time he ………………….., he had driven six hundred miles.

    A. stopped
    B. has stopped
    C. had stopped
    D. stops

    11. More than 50 films ………………………………………….in Hanoi since June.

    A. are being shown
    B. have been shown
    C. were shown
    D. are shown

    12. Braille is a reading system for the …………

    A. deaf
    B. dumb
    C. blind
    D. disabled

    13. The coffee …………………..by the time I got there this morning.

    A. had already been made
    B. had already made
    C. was already made
    D. has already been made

    14. I……………………. this afternoon, so we can go out somewhere.

    A. am not working
    B. haven’t worked
    C. am going to work
    D. will not working

    15. I was enjoying my book, but I stopped ………………………my homework.

    A. to read for doing
    B. reading for do
    C. reading to do
    D. to read to do

    16. In spite of her deafness, she played the violin very well.

    A. inability to see
    B. inability to speak
    C. mentally impairment
    D. inability to hear

    17. Thanks to the development of information ……………….., we can communicate with each other very quickly through the Internet.

    A. technician
    B. technique
    C. technology
    D. technical

    18. The …………….are those who do not have jobs.

    A. disabled
    B. unemployed
    C. old

    D. employed

    19. Marie Curie harboured the dream of a ……….career which was impossible for a woman at that time.

    A. scientist
    B. scientifically
    C. science
    D. scientific

    III. Error Identification: Choose the word or phrase that needs correcting.

    20. I’ll fly(A) to Mars(B) next week. I’ve already(C) gotten a(D) ticket.

    21. Although(A)the house was in(B) bad condition, it(C)wasn’t sold at(D) a high price.

    22. We are(A) looking forward(B) to see(C) you soon(D).

    23. The young(A) has (B) the future (C) in their (D) hands.

    IV.Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.

    24. A. injured B. disabled C. unemployed D.retarded

    25. A. height B. eighty C. sky D. life

    26. A. any B. car C. guitar D. father

    27. A. cook B. afternoon C. look D. good

    V. Writing: Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one.

    28. Mrs Quyen taught the mute but she doesn’t do it any more.

    A. Mrs Quyen used to teach the mute.
    B. Mrs Quyen gets used to teach the mute.
    C. Mrs Quyen is used to teaching the mute.
    D. Mrs Quyen has used to teaching the mute.

    29. We last went to the cinema two months ago.

    A. We haven’t been to the cinema for two months.
    B. We didn’t go to the cinema for two months.
    C. We have been to the cinema for two months.
    D. We didn’t want to go to the cinema any more.

    30. The storm prevented the climbers from continuing their adventure.

    A. Because the prevention of the storm, the climbers could not continue their adventure.
    B. Although it stormed they continued their adventure.
    C. It stopped storming and the climbers continued their adventure.
    D. Because of the storm, the climbers could not continue their adventure.

    31. He has worked as a teacher since 1999.

    A. He does not work as a teacher from 1999 up to now.
    B. He did not work as a teacher in 1999.
    C. He worked as a teacher in 1999.
    D. He began to work as a teacher in 1999.

    32. Jim passed the exam. This made his parents pleased.

    A. Jim passed the exam which made his parents pleased.
    B. Jim passed the exam that made his parents pleased.
    C. Jim passed the exam, that made his parents pleased.
    D. Jim passed the exam, which made his parents pleased.

    VI. Read the test and questions below for each question, circle the letter you choose A, B, C or D.

    Louis Braille was born in France in 1809. His father had a small business. He made shoes and other things from leather. Louis liked to help his father in the store even when he was very small. One day when Louis was 3 years old, he was cutting some leather. Suddenly the knife slipped and hit him in the eye. He soon became completely blind.

    When he was ten years old, he entered the National Institute for the blind in Paris. One day his class went to visit a special exhibit by a captain in the army. One thing in the exhibit was very interesting for Louis. It showed messages in code. Armies send messages in secret codes so no one else can read them. The captain wrote this code in raised letters on very thick paper.

    Louis thought a lot about this code. Then he decided to write in the same way so the blind could “read” with their fingers. It is very difficult to feel the differences between raised letters. Instead of letters. Louis used a “cell” of six dots. He arranged the dots with two dots across and three down. So blind people can read and write even write music by Braille.

    33. Louis Braille’s father made things from

    A. exhibit
    B. leather
    C. wool
    D. codes

    34. When Louis was ten years old, he began to study

    A. at a university
    B. at a special school for the blind
    C. at a local school
    D. in the army

    35. He saw a special exhibit. It showed …………… in code.

    A. messages
    B. systems
    C. arrangements
    D. computers

    36. It is difficult to feel the differences between

    A. raised letters
    B. coded messages
    C. a system of raised dots
    D. arrangements of dots

    37. Which of these sentences is probably NOT true?

    A. Louis Braille was an intelligent boy.
    B. Braille system is used for everyone.
    C. Braille invented a system of reading for blind people.
    D. Braille visited an exhibit of codes.

    VII. Choose a word in each line that has different stress pattern.

    38. A. documentary B. magazine C. advantage D. interfere

    39. A. miraculous B. communicate C. calculating D. technology

    40. A. photography B. retarded C. surrounding D. photograph

    1.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10

    Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới)

    1.3 Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 Anh 10

    Chủ đề

    Nhận biết

    Thông hiểu

    Vận dụng

    cấp độ thấp

    Vận dụng

    Cấp độ cao

    Tổng

    Reading

    – Reading comprehension.

    – Gap filling.

    – 3 (0,75 đ)

    – 5 câu (1,25 đ)

    – 2 câu (0,5 đ)

    10 câu

    2,5 điểm

    Phonetics

    (pronunciation / stress)

    – 3 câu (0,75 đ)

    – 2 câu (0,5 đ)

    5 câu

    1,25điểm

    Vocabulary and structures

    – Preposition

    – Infinitive.

    – Reported speech

    – Styles of writing

    – Conditional sentence

    – Tenses

    – Part of speech

    – Situation question.

    Word meaning

    – Gerund

    – Clause of reason

    – Relative clause

    – Synonym

    – 3câu (0,75 đ)

    – 1 (0,25đ)

    – 1 (0,25đ)

    – 1 (0,25đ)

    – 2 câu (0,5 đ)

    – 1 (0,25đ)

    – 2 câu (0,5 đ)

    – 1 (0,25đ)

    – 1 (0,25đ)

    – 2 câu (0,5 đ)

    – 2 câu (0,5 đ)

    – 3 câu (0,75 đ)

    – 1 (0,25đ)

    – 1 (0,25đ)

    – 3câu (0,75 đ)

    25 câu

    6,25 điểm

    Tổng

    10 điểm

    THE MATRIX (grade10)

    TOPICS

    KNOWLEDGE

    COMPREHENSION

    APPLICATION

    TOTAL

    I. PHONETICS: (8 questions)

    – sounds: –o,-ur,-ea,-a-..

    – word stress: 1,2,3 & 4 syllables

    2

    2

    1

    1

    1

    1

    8

    II. READING:

    – Choose the correct word to fill in the blanks: (5 questions)

    – Reading comprehension: (5 questions)

    2

    2

    2

    2

    1

    1

    10

    III. STRUCTURE & VOCABULARY

    – grammar (9)

    – vocabulary (4)

    – Communicative structures (2)

    – Preposition (4)

    – Word form (2)

    4

    2

    1

    2

    1

    3

    1

    1

    1

    1

    2

    1

    1

    21

    IV. WRITING: (8 questions)

    – Identify error (5 questions)

    – Rewrite sentences (6 sentences)

    2

    3

    2

    2

    1

    1

    11

    TOTAL SENTENCES

    23

    17

    10

    50

    TOTAL MARKS

    4.6

    3.4

    2.0

    10

    PERCENTAGE

    46%

    34%

    20%

    100%

    2. Đề thi học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh 10 Global Success

    2.1 Đề kiểm tra cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10

    PHÒNG GD&ĐT…

    TRƯỜNG THPT…

    ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I – NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

    Môn: Tiếng Anh 10 – Bộ sách: Kết tri thức với cuộc sống

    Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

    I. LISTENING: (2.5pts)

    PART 1: For quesstions 1-5, listen to an interview about preparations for an International Youth Music Festival. Choose the best option A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversation twice.

    Question 1. The second International Youth Music Festival opens on _______.

    A. Monday
    B. Tuesday
    C. Saturday
    D. Sunday

    Question 2. Last year the festival was _______.

    A. in the mountain
    B. on the beach
    C. at the hotel
    D. at the restaurant

    Question 3. The closet meaning of the phrase “free of charge” is _______.

    A. cheap
    B. expensive
    C. buckshee
    D. reasonable

    Question 4. Jack is one of the festival organisers so he is very _______.

    A. free
    B. bustling
    C. leisured
    D. unoccupied

    Question 5. What is not mentioned in the International Youth Music Festival this year?

    A. bands
    B. stage
    C. tickets
    D. sponsors

    PART 2: For quesstions 6-10, listen to an announcement about a Go Green Weekend event and decide whether the following statements areTrue (T) or False (F).You will hear the conversation twice.

    Question 6. At the club meeting, the speaker only talks about the teams and activities.

    Question 7. The Clean-up Team will pick up rubbish in the central market.

    Question 8. Both students and local people will take part in the event.

    Question 9. A report of the event will be produced by the Media Team.

    Question 10. According to the listening lesson, Go Green Weekend is the volunteering event.

    II. LANGUAGE: (2.5pts)

    PART 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

    Question 11. A. answer B. visit C. delay D. value

    Question 12. A. charity B. volunteer C. memory D. holiday

    PART 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

    Question 13. It’s not easy to gain ____ between husbands and wives, even in developed countries.

    A. equal chore
    B. chore equally
    C. chore equal
    D. chore equity

    Question 14. Her husband is very kind. He always cares ____ her and never puts all of the housework on her.

    A. about
    B. for
    C. about
    D. with

    Question 15. When his wife gave birth to a baby boy, Mr. Nam became the sole ____.

    A. housemaid
    B. housekeeper
    C. father
    D. breadwinner

    Question 16. This charity provides financial support and mental comfort to ____ children.

    A. advantaged
    B. disadvantaged
    C. advantageous
    D. disadvantageous

    Question 17. If parents behave well, they will _______ their children.

    A. take responsibility
    B. take care of
    C. set a good example for
    D. make a decision

    Question 18. His father reminded him _______ her tidy the house.

    A. turn
    B. turning
    C. to turn
    D. turned

    Question 19. Mike _______his best in the final test, so the result was as good as he expected.

    A. tries
    B. was trying
    C. tried
    D. has tried

    Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following question.

    Question 20. In spite of poverty, we manage to raise our children properly.

    A. give up
    B. go up
    C. make up
    D. bring up

    III. READING : (2,5pts)

    PART 1: Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each numbered blank (from 21 to 25 ).

    Gilberto Gil is a Brazilian singer and guitarist, and one of his country’s most (21) _______ songwriters. As a young (22) _______ in the 1950s, he was influenced by the style of Joao Gilberto, but he didn’t release his first album, Louvacao, (23) _______ 1967. He travelled in the 1970s, recorded an album in English, (24)_______ in 1980, introduced reggae to Brazil when he released his version of Bob Marley’s song, ‘No woman, no cry.’ He has played (25) _______ many musicians, while continuing his career as a solo artist. In all he has produced over 40 albums. His music appeals to people because of its rhythms and melodies but people also admire him for his work in politics and for social causes.

    Question 21. A. talent B. talenting C. talented D. talents

    Question 22. A. music B. musical C. musically D. musician

    Question 23. A. before B. until C. after D. in

    Question 24. A. but B. so C. and D. or

    Question 25. A. for B. with C. by D. to

    (Source: Adapted from Global Success Grade 10 – Workbook page 18)

    PART 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (from 26 to 30).

    My city has been changing since the municipal authority had a plan to renovate the canal systems. The project cost a huge amount of money which was from the support of the world bank and the city’s budget. Before the renovation, the canal was the dirtiest place full of rubbish along its sides. Many ramshackle shacks were built to be shelters of the impoverished working families migrating to this city to earn their living. Household wastes were directly dumped into the canal, resulting in the very contaminated environment. It was said that the very unpleasant smell releasing from the canal was unable to be eliminated, and the living condition there would not be better. However, thanks to the advanced technology and methods as well as the city authority’s effort, everything has been changing. There is no longer the disgusting smell or shabby houses along both sides of the canal. Instead, the road running parallel to the canal is now full of shade of greenery and the water now is so clean that it is a friendly habitat for a variety of fish. The residents now can walk or do morning exercise on the sidewalks along the banks to enjoy the fresh atmosphere. Former inhabitants are also relocated in new apartments with much better living conditions than before. The canal creates not only a beautiful urban landscape, but also brings a lot of economic benefits to local dwellers. Because of its reformation, the city is changing fast too.

    (Source: Adapted from Tests of the Global Success Grade 10 given by the publisher)

    Question 26. The main topic of the passage is about _________.

    A. the bad condition of the city canal

    B. the modern look of the city

    C. the change of the city because of the canal renovation

    D. the reason why the local authority renovates the canal

    Question 27. The word ‘impoverished’ in line 7 is closest in meaning to _________.

    A. wealthy B.disadvantaged C.poor D.homeless

    Question 28. People living there used to believe that _________.

    A. the canal would not become better

    B. the canal could be more improved

    C. the canal was the best investment for the economic development

    D. the unpleasant smell is the main pollution

    Question 29. Which of the following is false about the residents?

    A. They have better living conditions than before.

    B. The advanced technology contributes to the better changing of their lives.

    C. They can go for a walk along the canal without suffering from the unpleasant smell.

    D. Many of them still live in shanty houses.

    Question 30. What benefit can the canal bring to the city?

    A. The stunning view of the city

    B. The chances to boost local businesses

    C. The better view and opportunities

    D. The development of tourism

    IV. WRITING: (2,5pts)

    PART 1: Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (0,5 pt).

    Question 31. I was coming (A) home this morning when I was seeing (B) Kate waiting (C) at (D)the bus stop.

    Question 32. Don’t (A) forget locking (B) the door before (C) going (D) to bed.

    PART 2: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.

    Question 33. Tom started learning the guitar a month ago.

    Tom has ___________________________________________________________.

    Question 34. Let’s go out for dinner.

    He suggested __________________________________________________.

    Question 35. My sister tidies her room every day.

    My sister’s room ___________________________________________________________.

    PART 3: In about 80 – 100 words, write a paragraph about your favourite singer, following the guidelines below (1pt)

    + Name of singer

    + Kind of music

    + Why you like him/ her

    + Your feeling when listening to his/her songs

    +…….

    2.2 Ma trận đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 10

    TEST SPECIFICATION: FINAL – FIRST- TERM TEST

    Questions

    Tested Contents

    LEVELS

    Notes

    Knowledge

    Understanding

    Application

    High Application

    1

    Multiple Choice

    (Listening)

    X

    Level A2/

    Topics related to

    Units 1-2-3-4 & 5

    2

    X

    3

    X

    4

    X

    5

    X

    6

    True- False

    (Listening)

    X

    7

    X

    8

    X

    9

    X

    10

    X

    11

    Stress

    X

    Stress in two-syllable words

    (in Units 1, 2 , 3, 4 &5)

    12

    Stress

    X

    Stress in three -syllable nouns

    (in Units 1, 2 , 3, 4 &5)

    13

    Vocabulary

    X

    Word form/Word meaning

    14

    Vocabulary

    X

    Collocation/ Preposition

    15

    Vocabulary

    X

    Word form

    Real context to choose

    an adjective suffix: -ed/-ing/- ful/-less

    16

    Vocabulary

    X

    Word meaning

    17

    Vocabulary

    X

    Idiom/ Proverb

    18

    Grammar

    X

    Gerund/ Infinitive

    19

    Grammar

    X

    Past Simple/ Past Continuous/

    Present Perfect

    20

    Vocabulary/ Synonym/ Antonym

    X

    Root word is in the text

    21

    Cloze Text

    (Level A2)

    X

    Tense/ Preposition/Collocation

    22

    X

    Relative pronoun/ Grammar/

    23

    X

    Word form

    24

    X

    Word meaning

    25

    X

    Conjunction/ connector/…

    26

    Reading comprehension

    (Level A2)

    X

    Getting details

    27

    X

    Reference (Pronoun)

    28

    X

    Reference (Vocabulary)

    29

    X

    Getting details

    30

    X

    Main idea/ Inference

    31

    Error Identification

    X

    Tenses (Present Simple/ Present continuous/ Past Simple/ Past continuous/Present Perfect)

    32

    X

    To Infinitive/ bare-Infinitive/ Gerund

    33

    Transformation

    X

    Tenses (Past Simple ó Present Perfect)

    34

    X

    To Infinitive/ Bare-Infinitive ó Gerund

    35

    X

    Passive voice (Present Simple; Past Simple; Be going to; Present Perfect; …. )

    Theme writing

    (80-100 words)

    A paragraph/

    a letter/…

    X

    A paragraph

    16

    12

    7

    A paragraph

    Tested Contents

    Rate

    Knowledge

    Understand

    Application

    High Application

    Theme writing

    10%

    5%

    5%

    Self – Introduction

    10%

    5%

    5%

    Theme Speaking

    10%

    5%

    5%

    3.Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global

    3.1 Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 10 học kì 1

    PART 1: PHONETICS

    Section 1: Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the word pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.

    1.

    A. tragic
    B. alter
    C. background
    D. animation

    2.

    A. relieved
    B. stereotype
    C. envious
    D. episode

    3.

    A. frostbite
    B. sitcom
    C. emission
    D. film

    Section 2: Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

    4.

    A. snowflake
    B. misty
    C. meteor
    D. marine

    5.

    A. nutrient
    B. magnitude
    C. championship
    D. depression

    PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

    Section 3: Choose the word /phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence.

    6. Of the four dresses, which is _________________expensive?

    A. the best
    B. the most
    C. the more
    D. the greater

    7. She plays the piano __________________ as she sings.

    A. as beautifully
    B. more beautifully
    C. as beautiful
    D. the most beautifully

    8. John is much ____ I thought.

    A. strong
    B. more strong
    C. stronger than
    D. more strong than

    9. Life is not so easy for _____ unemployed.

    A. the
    B. a
    C. an
    D. Ø

    10. There is _______ new English book on the desk.

    A. a
    B. an
    C. the
    D. Ø

    11. I never listen to _____ radio. In fact I haven’t got ____ radio.

    A. a/ a
    B. a/ the
    C. the/ the
    D. the/ a

    12. He said that he _________ enter the examination room because he was late.

    A. mustn’t
    B. couldn’t
    C. needn’t
    D. might not

    13. “I have got a headache.” – “You _________ go to see the doctor.”

    A. may
    B. could
    C. should
    D. might

    14. He was writing to his friend when he __________a noise.

    A. was hearing
    B. heard
    C. had heard
    D. hears

    15. She was playing games while he __________a football match.

    A. watched
    B. watches
    C. was watching
    D. watching

    16. The books he wrote about famous mountain climbers are his greatest ………………………

    A. achievable
    B. achieve
    C. achiever
    D. achievements

    17. The ……………………… for our trip was quick because we only planned to stay for two nights.

    A. prepare
    B. preparing
    C. preparation
    D. prepared

    18. Rachel was brought …………….. by her aunt and uncle.

    A. off
    B. on
    C. up
    D. out

    19. My dad is looking forward to finishing work next year and having more time for his hobbies. The phrase “ finishing work” can be best replaced by……………

    A. retiring
    B. damaging
    C. inheriting
    D. combating

    20. There’s another …………………idea to help make you happier.

    A. surprised
    B. surprising
    C. surprise
    D. surprisingly

    21. The coffee was _____ to drink.

    A. so strong
    B. strong
    C. enough strong
    D. too strong

    22. I am not _____ a car.

    A. rich enough to buy
    B. too rich enough to buy
    C. too poor to buy
    D. enough rich to buy

    23. The film was ______ through.

    A. too long for us to see
    B. very long for us to see it
    C. too long for us seeing it
    D. too long enough for us to see

    24. Quick and simple games like Angry Birds can improve players’ mood and ……………them from feeling anxious.

    A. cause
    B. prevent
    C. remind
    D. benefit

    25. El Nino ……………..a big impact on the Pacific region and affects weather all over the world.

    A. makes
    B. causes
    C. does
    D. has

    PART 3: WRITING

    Section 4: Rewrite each of the following sentences in another way so that it means almost the same as the sentence printed before it.

    26. I am keen on extreme sports. (FAN)

    => I ………………………………………………………………………………….

    27. Sweden is much colder than Vietnam (THAN)

    => Vietnam …………………………………………………………………….

    28. The Andes is longer than all the other mountain ranges in the world.

    => The Andes ………………………………………………………………….

    29. It is against the school rules to cheat in the test. (Use a modal verb)

    => You …………………………………………………………………………….

    30. It is necessary for young people to consult their parents about future career. (Use a modal verb)

    => Young ………………………………………………………………………….

    PART 4: READING

    Section 5: Read an article about water conservation. Then answer some questions below.

    THINK BEFORE YOU TOSS

    Countries around the world have growing mountains of trash because people are throwing out more trash than ever before. How did we become a throwaway society?
    First of all, it is now easier to replace an item than to spend time and money to repair it. Thanks to modern manufacturing and technology, companies are able to produce items quickly and inexpensively. Products are plentiful and prices are low, so we would rather buy something new than repair it. Even if we did want to repair something, many items are almost impossible to repair. These products contain many tiny, complicated parts. Some even contain small computer chips. It’s easier to throw these items away and buy new ones than to fix them.
    Another contributing factor is our love of disposable products. As busy people, we are always looking for ways to save time and make our lives easier. Why should we use cloth kitchen towels? It’s easier to use paper towel once and toss it out. Companies manufacture thousands of different kinds of disposable items: paper plates, plastic cups, cameras, and razors for shaving, to name a few. The problem is that disposable products also contribute to our trash problem.

    Our appetite for new products also contributes to the problem. We are addicted to buying things. As consumers, we want the latest clothes, the best TVs, and cellphones with west features. Companies tell us to buy, buy, and buy. Advertisements persuade us wer is better. The result is that we throw away useful possessions to make room for new ones.

    31. Which of the following is NOT a reason for people to replace a broken item?

    A. Products are now mass produced at affordable prices.
    B. It takes almost no time to fix broken items.
    C. Many items are too complicated to repair.
    D. Some products contain tiny, complicated chips.

    32. All of the following are disposable products, EXCEPT ____.

    A. cloth kitchen towels
    B. paper plates
    C. plastic cups
    D. razors for shaving

    33. The word “disposable” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.

    A. convenient
    B. inexpensive
    C. throwaway
    D. single-use

    34. Why are we hooked on buying new things?

    A. We throw the old items to make room for the new ones.
    B. We have more money than ever before.
    C. We want to own as many things as possible.
    D. We are made to believe that the new is the better.

    35. The word “appetite” in the last paragraph can be best replaced by ____.

    A. need
    B. demand
    C. desire
    D. taste

    Section 6: Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

    GLOBAL WARMING

    Few people now question the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s climate. Many scientists (36) ____ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the world’s temperatures and are convinced that, more than (37) ____ before, the Earth is at risk from the forces of the wind, rain and sun. (38) ____ to them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more (39) ____ and causing sea levels all around the world to (40) _____.

    36.
    A. give

    B. put
    C. take
    D. have

    37.

    A. yet
    B. never
    C. once
    D. ever

    38.

    A. Concerning
    B. Regarding
    C. Depending
    D. According

    39.

    A. strict
    B. severe
    C. strong
    D. heavy

    40.

    A. raise
    B. arise
    C. rise
    D. lift

    3.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10

    1B 2A 3A 4D 5D 6B 7A
    8C 9A 10A 11D 12A 13C 14B
    15C 16D 17C 18C 19A 20B 21D
    22A 23A 24B 25D 31B 32A 33D
    34D 35C 36B 37D 38A 39B 40C

    26. am a fan of extreme sports

    27. is much hotter than Sweden

    28. is the longest mountain range in the world

    29. must not cheat in the test

    30. must consult their parents about future career

    …………..

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