Bộ đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2023 – 2024 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống

Đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Global Success năm 2023 – 2024 mang đến 5 đề kiểm tra học kì 2 có đáp án giải chi tiết kèm theo file nghe.

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TOP 5 Đề thi tiếng Anh 10 Global Success cuối kì 2 được xây dựng với cấu trúc đề rất đa dạng, bám sát nội dung chương trình học trong sách giáo khoa lớp 10. Thông qua 5 đề kiểm tra cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Global Success sẽ giúp các em rèn luyện những kĩ năng cần thiết và bổ sung những kiến thức chưa nắm vững để chuẩn bị kiến thức thật tốt. Với 5 đề kiểm tra cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Global Success có đáp án kèm theo sẽ giúp các bạn so sánh được kết quả sau khi hoàn thành bài tập. Ngoài ra các bạn xem thêm bộ đề thi học kì 2 Toán 10 Kết nối tri thức.

Bộ đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Global Success năm 2023 – 2024

1. Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Global Success – Đề 1

1.1 Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 10

SỞ GD & ĐT …………

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024 Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không tính thời gian phát đề

Listening. (2.0 pts)

Bài nghe:

Part 1: You will listen to Jessica talking to Frank about a dance class. Listen and circle the correct answers. You will hear the conversation TWICE. (1.0 pt)

Question 1: The class takes______.

A. 45 minutes
B. an hour
C. two hours

Question 2: What doesn’t Frank need to take?

A. sports clothes
B. food
C. trainers

Question 3: The teacher needs to know______.

A. how fat people are
B. if people have never done a dance class before
C. how old people are

Question 4: The normal price of classes is______.

A. £15
B. £6
C. £9

Question 5: They will meet______.

A. at school.
B. at Jessica’s house.
C. in the café.

Part 2: You will hear a speaker giving information about a skiing trip. Listen and complete the questions given. You will hear the recording TWICE. (1.0 pt)

SKIING TRIP
Country: Dates of trip: Cost of trip: Not included in price: Free lessons: Beginners take lessons to learn:	Italy 2nd – (6) __________________ January (7) £ Lunch and (8) Every (9) (10)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.6 pt)

Question 11. A. three B. think C. though D. thank

Question 12. A. family B. activity C. language D. favourite

Question 13. A. number B. unknown C. summer D. future

Give the correct tense/ form of the verbs in the brackets. (1.0 pt)

Question 14. You ___________________ (fail) the exam if you don’t start revising.

Question 15. The bird which _________________ (have) a very sweet song builds its nest on the ground.

Question 16. She said that she___________________(want) to go to the library and work on her paper.

Question 17. We ___________________ (play) a lot of games at my birthday party yesterday.

Question 18. Sandra ___________________ (borrow) $2000 from her friends for 2 years.

Read the following passage and choose the most suitable answer. (1.0 pt)

Earth Hour is an every-year global event that encourages people and businesses around the world to switch off electricity at the same time for one hour at the end of March. Organized by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), Earth Hour started in Australia in 2007 when 2.2 million people in the city of Sydney turned off all non-essential lights for 60 minutes. Since then it has grown to a big global event. In 2013, more than 7,000 cities and towns worldwide participated in this event. Every year landmarks and well-known buildings around the world such as the Sydney Opera House and Harbour Bridge, the Petronas towers in Malaysia, the UK Parliament, Buckingham Palace and the Empire State Building take part and “go dark” for Earth Hour. Therefore, Earth Hour has been a symbolic event to make people think about the problems of climate change and show their commitment to protect the planet.

(Adapted from “Earth Hour” by British Council)

Question 19. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT______.

A. Earth Hour started in 2007
B. Earth Hour is organized every year
C. Earth Hour makes people think about climate change
D. Only Australia took part in Earth Hour in 2013

Question 20. Earth Hour was first organized in ______.

A. the US
B. the UK
C. Malaysia
D. Australia

Question 21. The word “non-essential” in the second sentence can be best replaced by ______.

A. unnecessary
B. useful
C. harmless
D. interesting

Question 22. The word “it” in the third sentence refers to ______.

A. Earth Hour
B. lights
C. the city of Sydney
D. a global event

Question 23. The passage is mainly about ______.

A. a famous place for people to visit
B. an activity of Sydney people to take place in March
C. a global competition to save the Earth’s energy
D. a worldwide event to help protect the planet

Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions. (2.0 pts)

Question 24. Each exercise ______ a different grammar point.

A. keeps on
B. turns on
C. sits on
D. focuses on

Question 25. My parents told me that they would come there to visit me ______.

A. the following day
B. now
C. next month
D. tomorrow

Question 26. Jenifer: “Let’s go camping”

Jack: “______. The weather is not so good today”

A. Oh, I don’t think it’s a good idea
B. Just bring yourself
C. Yes, let’s do that
D. No problem

Question 27. Maddy’s teacher says she’s one of the smartest kids in the class.

The word “smartest” is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.

A. happiest
B. most intelligent
C. most confident
D. friendliest

Question 28. My parents have always encouraged me in my study.

The word “encouraged” is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. graduated
B. prevented
C. asked
D. provided

Question 29. ______ speaking, women here are treated unequally.

A. Harmfully
B. Culturally
C. Helpfully
D. Voluntarily

Question 30. We should ______ paper products, glass bottles, soda cans, and some kinds of plastic.

A. recycle
B. protect
C. give
D. lend

Question 31. The school aims to provide a supportive learning ______.

A. door
B. school
C. environment
D. responsibility

Question 32. Luckily, my second attempt at starting a business was more ______ than my first.

A. useful
B. careful
C. successful
D. beautiful

Question 33. The meeting took almost five hours so it was impossible to ______ attention all the time.

A. make
B. have
C. pay
D. get

Choose the word which differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress. (0.4 pt)

Question 34. A. carefully B. concentrate C. tradition D. colorful

Question 35. A. system B. allow C. promote D. agree

Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the sentence provided. (1.0 pt)

Question 36. They are learning English in the room.

English …………………………………………

Question 37. Science and technology have changed human life.

Human life …………………………………………

Question 38. There is no better teacher in this school than Mrs. Jackson.

Mrs. Jackson is the …………………………………………

Question 39. She said, “I’ll write John a prescription.”

She said …………………………………………..

Question 40. I don’t have a spare ticket. I can’t take you to the concert If I .

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each of the numbered blanks. (1.0 pt)

ONLINE SHOPPING

Online shopping has become very popular. With a click of a mouse on your computer, you can buy anything (41) ________ you want. It is much easier than going into town, looking around lots of different shops. You can also see what is (42) ________ in stores all over the world, when you shop online.

Another good reason for shopping on the internet, is that you don’t have to carry heavy bags of shopping home. Online companies just (43) ________ your order to your house, usually, in a few days.

One big problem with online shopping, (44) ________ , is that you can’t try on any clothes before you buy them. And often, when you get your clothes, they look very different (45) ________ the online pictures. They may also be larger or smaller than the size you wanted. For this reason, many people often have to return clothes they bought on the internet.

Question 41. A. whom B. where C. who D. that

Question 42. A. avail B. availability C. availably D. available

Question 43. A. send B. buy C. produce D. visit

Question 44. A. so B. because C. however D. although

Question 45. A. from B. on C. over D. of

Write a short paragraph (about 100 words) about some benefits of online learning. (1.0 pt)

1.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 10

1	A
2	C
3	B
4	B
5	C
6	12th
7	730
8	drinks
9	morning
10	(good) (skiing) techniques/ skiing
11	C
12	D
13	D
14	will fail/ can fail/ may fail
15	has
16	wanted
17	played
18	has borrowed
19	D
20	D
21	A
22	A
23	D
24	D
25	A
26	A
27	B
28	B
29	B
30	A
31	C
32	C
33	C
34	C
35	A
36	English is being learned/ being learnt (0.1) in the room (0.1).
37	Human life has been changed (0.1) by science and technology (0.1).
38	Mrs Jackson is the best (0.1) teacher in this school (0.1).
39	She said (that) she would write (0.1) John a prescription (0.1).
40	If I had a spare ticket (0.1), I could take you to the concert (0.1).
41	D
42	D
43	A
44	C
45	A

Write a short paragraph (about 100 words) about some benefits of online learning. (1.0 pt)

Today online learning plays an important role in students’ academic life. First, it is undeniable that studying in E-classes is a safe and convenient way for students to keep track of their study at home if an outbreak of disease occurs like the Coronavirus pandemic. Students do not need to go to school, so they can avoid being infected with fatal diseases. Second, it enables students to take advantage of new technology in studying. They are able to review the videos of E-lessons after class, actively communicate with their teachers via free, easy-to-use apps with various supporting tools, do assignments, and get feedback quickly. Finally, it helps students become more proactive in learning. Unlike face-to-face learning, students become more independent and have to improve their self-awareness, time-management skills as well as concentrate on teachers’ E-lessons. In short, students had better take advantage of online learning effectively with a view to getting good study results.

2. Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Global Success – Đề 2

2.1 Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 10

SỞ GD & ĐT …………

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024 Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không tính thời gian phát đề

LISTENING (2pts)

Part 1: Mai and Nam are talking about Mai’s project on ways to save endangered animals. Listen carefully and decide whether the following statements are true (T), false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point)

Statements	True	False
Question 1 (NB): Mai is trying to complete it by next Sunday		F
Question 2 (TH): Nam thinks the first thing people should be made aware of the importance of the problem.	T
Question 3 (NB): Wildlife trade should be encouraged		F
Question 4 (VD): Mai believes that hunting destroys wild animals’ natural habitats	T

Part 2: You will hear Tom and his mum talking about how to study better. Listen and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following questions. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point)

Question 5 (NB): According to Tom’s mum, what doesn’t help people study?

A. music
B. TV
C. computer
D. the Internet

Question 6 (NB): Which animal affects Tom’s studying?

A. a cat
B. a dog
C. a duck
D. a mouse

Question 7 (TH): What does Tom need the Internet for?

A. to play game
B. to listen to music
C. to look up information
D. to watch film

Question 8 (VD): What was Mum’s Tom NOT mentioned?

A. turn off music
B. put the dog outside.
C. turn off phone
D. chat with friends

LANGUAGE (2pts)

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (1.5 points).

Question 9 (NB): Global warming is becoming an____ serious problem that needs to be taken care of as soon as possible.

A. increase
B. increasingly
C. increasing
D. increased

Question 10 (TH): Using plastic products has done _______ to the surroundings.

A. destruction
B. pollution
C. har
D. hurt

Question 11 (TH): My brother _______ a lot of new languages from speaking with my host family and with other students from all over the world.

A. picked up
B. took up
C. made up
D. saved up

Question 12 (TH): My father wondered _________.

A. why I had come home late
B. why had I come home late
C. why I have come home late
D. why I come home late

Question 13 (TH): In order to join international trades, we need to _________ our products widely.

A. donate
B. promote
C. welcome
D. control

Question 14 (NB): Students ________ do not do their homework regularly can be punished by strict teachers.

A. who
B. whom
C. which
D. they

Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. (0,5 point).

Question 15 (NB): A. erosion B. endanger C. habitat D. pollution

Question 16 (NB): A. digital B. negative C. serious D. computer

READING (2pts)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1.0 point)

The last two decades have seen enormous changes in the way people’s (17) _______ are affected by IT. Twenty years ago, few people had access to a computer while today most people use them at work, home or school and use of e-mail and the Internet is an everyday event.

These developments have brought many (18) ________ to our lives. E-mail makes communication much easier and more immediate. This has numerous benefits for business, commerce, and education. The World Wide Web means that information on every conceivable subject is now (19) _______ to us. Clearly, for many people this has made life much easier and more convenient.

However, not all the effects of the new technology have been beneficial. Many people feel that the widespread use of e-mail is destroying traditional forms of (20) _________ such as letter writing, telephone and face-to-face conversation. With ever increasing use of information technology these negative elements are likely to increase in the future.

Question 17 (NB): A. live B. lives C. living D. life

Question 18 (TH): A. services B. uses C. benefits D. effects

Question 19 (VD): A. free B. convenient C. unused D. available

Question 20 (NB): A. communicate B. communicative C. communication D. communicational

Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (1.0 point)

WHAT IS YOUR LEARNING STYLE?

If you find yourself learning better by making notes during the lecture, or when the teacher uses a new word, you want to see it written immediately, then you are very likely to be a more visual learner. You prefer to see the written words. You learn by reading and writing. Visual learners often think in pictures. If you find a particular task or text difficult, look for sources that will suit your learning style, e.g. sources with illustrations, charts, tables, or videos. If you prefer recording the lecture and listening again to taking notes, or you memorize something by repeating it aloud instead of writing it out several times, you are probably a more auditory learner. You prefer to learn by listening and speaking. Auditory learners often learn best from lectures, discussions, by reading aloud, and by listening to audio material.

However, it is probably that you, like most people, learn through a mixture of styles. Sometimes you may prefer to learn by reading, at other times by listening. Ask yourself which is the best style for the particular task you are doing.

Question 21 (NB): What does the word “it” in paragraph 1 refer to?

A. the lecture
B. a new word
C. the note
D. the written word

Question 22 (TH): The word “visual” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. picturesque
B. written
C. illustrative
D. seeable

Question 23 (NB): Which of the following statements is true?

A. Auditory learners hate taking notes during the lectures.
B. Auditory learners have a tendency to prefer listening to speaking.
C. Most people are auditory learners.
D. When learning something by heart, an auditory learner prefers reading it out loud.

Question 24 (VD): What can be inferred from the last paragraph?

A. Different tasks should be done by different learning styles.
B. Learning by reading is the most beneficial style for learners.
C. Each kind of leaners always uses the same learning styles for different tasks.
D. Learners can not combine different learning styles.

WRITING (2pts)

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (0.5 point).

Question 25(NB): If my parents have free time, they would take us to the park, but they are very busy with work.

A. have
B. to
C. are
D. with

Question 26 (NB): The books you are studying won’t always present informative in a way that suits your learning style.

A. studying
B. informative
C. that
D. learning

Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning (0.5 point).

Question 27 (VD): I don’t have a printer. I can’t print the document by myself.

If I……………………………………………..……………………………………………

Question 28 (VD): We must finish the project the teacher gave us by Tuesday.

The project the teacher gave us …………………………………………………………….

Writing a paragraph using 80-100 words (VD) (1.0 point)
Write a paragraph about the advantages / disadvantages of using the Internet in learning.

SPEAKING (2.0pts)

THE END

2.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10

LISTENING

Question 1	Question 2	Question 3	Question 4
F	T	F	T

Question 5	Question 6	Question 7	Question 8
A	B	C	D

LANGUAGE

Question 9	Question 10	Question 11	Question 12
B	C	A	A
Question 13	Question 14	Question 15	Question 16
B	A	C	D

READING

Question 17	Question 18	Question 19	Question 20
B	C	D	C
Question 21	Question 22	Question 23	Question 24
B	D	D	A

WRITING

Question 25	Question 26
A	B

Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning.

Question 27: If I HAD A PRINTER, I COULD PRINT THE DOCUMENT BY MYSELF.

Question 28: The project the teacher gave us MUST BE FINISHED BY TUESDAY.

Writing a paragraph using 80-100 words.

Write a paragraph about the advantages and disadvantages of using the Internet in learning.

TAPE SCRIPT 1:

Mai and Nam are talking about Mai’s project on ways to save endangered animals. Listen carefully and decide whether the following statements are true (T), false (F).

Nam: Hi, Mai. How’s your mid-term project going?

Mai: Good! I’m trying to complete it by next Monday. But I’m still working on the last part: saving endangered animals. Do you have any ideas, Nam?

Nam: Well, I think the first thing you should do is help people understand the importance of this problem.

Mai: Yes, I agree. Some people think this is a natural process that would happen with or without humans. They also believe that’s not their responsibility.

Nam: You should also do some research on the number of endangered animals. We are losing animals quicker now than ever before. And one of the reasons is illegal hunting.

Mai: Yes, hunting causes a lot of suffering to wild animals. It destroys their natural habitats, and leaves baby animals behind to die.

Nam: Well, I think strict laws can really help. Heavy punishment may prevent people from

illegal hunting. Besides, wildlife trade should be banned as well.

Mai: That would stop illegal hunting. Any more ideas, Nam?

Nam: And we should make sure that the souvenirs we buy on holiday are not made from endangered animal parts. Mai: That’s true. Thanks, Nam! You’ve been so helpful.

TAPE SCRIPT 2:

You will hear Tom and his mum talking about how to study better. Listen and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following questions. You will hear the recording twice

2.3 Ma trận đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10

TT	Kĩ năng	Mức độ nhận thức								Tổng
		Nhận biết		Thông hiểu		Vận dụng		Vận dụng cao
		Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)
1	Nghe	10	5	5	2	5	3			20	10
2	Ngôn ngữ	10	4	10	6					20	10
3	Đọc	10	5	5	5	5	5			20	15
4	Viết	5	2	0	0	5	3	10	10	20	15
5	Nói	5	2	10	5	5	3			20	10
Tổng		40	18	30	18	20	14	10	10	100	60
Tỉ lệ (% )		40		30		20		10		100
Tỉ lệ chung (%)		70				30

Lưu ý:

– Thời gian mang tính đề xuất, cán bộ ra đề tham khảo để lựa chọn số câu hỏi cho phù hợp với thời gian ấn định của bài kiểm tra.

– Tỉ lệ mức độ nhận thức mang tính đề xuất.

– Tỉ lệ giữa các kỹ năng và kiến thức ngôn ngữ có thể điều chỉnh trong khoảng 5%.

– Tỉ lệ được tính dựa trên điểm số, không tính trên số lượng câu hỏi.

– Tỉ lệ giữa câu trắc nghiệm khách quan và câu tự luận là tương đối, có thể điều chỉnh theo điều kiện thực tế.

…………

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