Bộ đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023 – 2024

Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 9 năm 2023 – 2024 tổng hợp 9 đề có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo bảng ma trận đề kiểm tra.

Bạn đang đọc: Bộ đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023 – 2024

TOP 9 đề kiểm tra cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 9 được biên soạn nhằm giúp học sinh ôn lại kiến thức và rèn kĩ năng giải bài tập để các em đạt kết quả cao hơn trong kì thi kiểm tra học kì 2 sắp tới. Các đề kiểm tra học kì 2 tiếng Anh lớp 9 được biên soạn đầy đủ, nội dung sát với chương trình sách giáo khoa hiện hành. Đây cũng là tài liệu vô cùng hữu ích giúp giáo viên ra đề ôn luyện cho các bạn học sinh. Bên cạnh đó các bạn tham khảo thêm một số đề thi như: đề thi học kì 2 Toán 9, đề thi học kì 2 môn Lịch sử 9.

Bộ đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 9 năm 2023 – 2024

1. Đề thi cuối kì 2 Tiếng Anh 9 – Đề 1

1.1 Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 9

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE TEST. (8,0 ms)

Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.

Question 1: A. pollution	B. future	C. commune	D. human
Question 2: A. drip	B. innovation	C. satisfy	D. pipe
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
Question 3: A. education	B. community	C. development	D. existence
Question 4: A. activity	B. celebrate	C. congratulate	D. considerate
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: The policemen have caught the man stole my motorbike.

A. who
B. whose
C. whom
D. which

Question 6: My sister feels satisfied with her job because she …… in this bank for five years.

A. has worked
B. was working
C. had worked
D. works

Question 7: The camera Sarah bought yesterday was made in Japan.

A. who
B. which
C. whose
D. whom

Question 8: It’s very hot so he turned the air condition.

A. off
B. down
C. up
D. on

Question 9: The food is delicious , it’s a bit spicy.

A. Although
B. Because
C. However
D. So

Question 10: Solar energy should be used of coal, gas and oil.

A. on account
B. instead
C. by reason
D. except

Question 11 Peter was late, he stopped to buy a sandwich.

A. Despite
B. And
C. Because
D. Although

Question 12: A: “I think we should use less paper to save trees in the forests.” B: “… ”.

A. Congratulations!
B. That’s a good idea.
C. Yes, I’d love to.
D. You’re welcome.

Question 13: Are you someone who can read and write well in English but can’t speak………?

A. fluent
B. influency
C. fluency
D. fluently

Question 14: The Opera house is one of the most popular tourist in Sydney.

A. attractive
B. attractions
C. attractiveness
D. attractively

Question 15: If you worked harder, things well.

A. would go
B. can go
C. will go
D. went

Question 16: Students want to be volunteer ……… to work for the protection of the environment.

A. conservationists
B. conservation
C. conserve
D. conserved

Question 17: Mary asked Peter …………

A. if he could draw well.
B. if / whether he can draw.
C. whether he could draw well.
D. Both A&C.

Question 18: If we plant more trees, we pollution in the atmosphere.

A. reduce
B. reduced
C. will reduce
D. would reduce

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction

Question 19: This is the book which I bought it from a book fair held in NT City last month.

A. This
B. which
C. it
D. held

Question 20: I know she is a kind woman because I have never met her before.

A. kind
B. because
C. have
D. her

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word.

Question 21: We should attend some kinds of courses that can improve our social skills.

A. take part in
B. mention
C. visit
D. consist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

Question 22: If they go on cutting down the trees in the forest, big flood will occur.

A. continue
B. keep on
C. stop
D. enjoy

Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Nha Trang, which is situated in the South Central Coast of Vietnam, is a fascinating destination to tourists at home and(23) It is a popular tourist city which offers a wide

range of activities for visitors. For example, you can spend time (24) …………… on white sand beaches, relaxing and enjoying (25) view or beautiful landscape. Also, there are some

well-known tourist (26) …………… in this city including Vinpearl Land and Tri Nguyen Aquarium, (27) …………… attract millions of visitors every year. Besides, you will have the opportunity to enjoy seafood if you come here.

Question 23: A. foreign B. foreigner C. abroad D. other

Question 24: A. lie B. lying C. to lie D. lies

Question 25: A. beautiful B. interested C. boring D. excited

Question 26: A. attraction B. attractive C.attracted D. attractions

Question 27: A. which B. who C. whom D. Whose

Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions

Earthquakes are the deadliest of all natural disasters. Most deaths are caused by collapsing buildings or fires. Several million earthquakes occur in the world each year. However, many of these are undetected because they occur in remote areas or are very weak. On average, there are eighteen major earthquakes and one great earthquake each year. The most recent major earthquake took place on the island of Haiti in the West Indies. The Hitian government reported that 230,000 people had died, 300,000 had been injured and one million became homeless.

Earthquakes are most common near large cracks in the Earth’s crust, known as “faults”. They often occur in southern Europe, where two large slabs of crust are moving towards each other.

Question 28: The passage is about …………..

A. tidal waves
B. typhoons
C. earthquakes
D. tornadoes

Question 29: The word major in line 4 means ……………

A. very big
B. weak
C. significant
D. very small

Question 30: How many injured people were there in the earthquake on the island of Haiti?

A. 230,000
B. 250,000
C. 300,000
D. 350,000

Question 31:Manyof the earhquakes occur in remote areas or are very ……………

A. strong
B. weak
C. heavy
D. light

Question 32: Which statement is NOT true?

A. Earthquakes often occur in southern Europe.
B. Several million earthquakes occur in the world each year.
C. Earthquakes are the deadliest of all natural disasters.
D. Earthquakes usually occur in the center of the city.

B. WRITING TEST. (2,0 ms)

Rewrite the sentence without changing the meaning, using the word in bracket.

Question 33: The weather is not nice so the students can not go camping. (If)

…………………………………………………………

Question 34: They know smoking is bad for their health. However, they smoke a lot. (Although)

…………………………………………………………

Question 35: Many people were killed by the tsunami. They came from other countries. (who)

…………………………………………………………

Question 36: “Would you like to have lunch with me, Tom?” I asked. (invited)

…………………………………………………………

Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence given.

Question 37: I suggest helping elderly people and poor children.

I suggest that we ………………………………………………………

Question 38: Students will clean the schoolyard next Sunday.

The schoolyard …………………………………………………………

Question 39: He said to me: “Do they come to visit Ha Long Bay?”

He asked ………………………………………………………………

Question 40: London was once the largest city in the world, but the population is now falling.

The population ………………………………………………………………

1.2 Đáp án đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 9

A. MULTIPLECHOICETEST. (8.0ms – 0,25 m/each sentence)

Qs	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12	13	14	15	16
KEY	A	D	A	B	A	A	B	D	C	B	D	B	D	B	A	A

Qs	17	18	19	20	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30	31	32
KEY	D	C	C	B	A	C	C	B	A	D	A	C	A	C	B	D

B. WRITING TEST. (2.0ms – 0,25m/each sentence)

33. If the weather were (was) nice, the students could go camping.

34. Al though they know smoking is bad for their health, they smoke a lot

35. Many of the people who came from other countries were killed by the tsunami.

36. I invited Tom to have lunch with me.

37. I suggest that we should help elderly people and poor children.

38. The schoolyard will be cleaned next Sunday by students.

39. He asked me if they came to visit Ha Long Bay.

40. The population of London, which was once the largest city in the world, is now falling.

2. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 9 – Đề 2

2.1 Đề thi học kì 2 môn tiếng Anh 9

Part I. Listen (2.0 pts)

Bài nghe:

1. Listen to FIVE short conversations. Choose the main topic of each conversation. Circle A, B or C. You will listen TWICE.

1. What is the conversation about?

A. A hectic trip
B. A cruise party
C. A bus drive

2. What is the conversation about?

A. An unexpected trip
B. Other people on the same trip
C. A trip by ship

3. What is the conversation about?

A. Things that he loved during the trip
B. Things that he hated during the trip
C. Things that he recommended during the trip

4. What is the conversation about?

A. Things that he loved during the trip
B. Things that he wanted to improve during the trip
C. Things that he recommended during the trip

2. Listen to a conversation between a man and a receptionist. Fill each of the gaps in the notes with no more than two words or a number. You will listen TWICE.

MAYFAIR HOTEL – BOOKING FORM

Name: Mark (1) ___________________.

Phone number: (2) ___________________.

Number of days: (3) ___________________.

Number of guests: (4) ___________________.

Price: (5) _________ $

Note: Book a (6) ___________________ for him.

Part II . Phonetic (1 pt)

A. Find the word that are pronouned differentlyfrom the other.(0,5 pts)

1- A. battery B. lake C. bake D. behave

2- A. easy B. earthquake C. easter D. eat

B. Which word is stressed differently from the others? (0,5pt)

1. A. congratulate B. priority C. A. nomination D. occurrence

2. A. predict B.replace C. resource D. cover

Part III. Choose the best answer (3,0 pts)

Ex 1. Choose the best answer ( 2.0 pts)

1 – UFOs are unidentified________ objects that some people report they have seen in the sky.

A. flying
B. flies
C. flew
D. flown

2 – The man asked me __________ I _____________ the way to The Great Wall.

A. if / know
B. whether / knew
C. that / knew
D. where/ knew

3 – Have you ever seen any films ________________ UFOs ?

A. over
B. in
C. with
D. on

4 – The city __________________ they used to live when young is very beautiful.

A. what
B. which
C. where
D. whose

5 – The 1991 volcanic eruption in the Philippines was ___ in the world in more than 50 years.

A. larger
B. largest
C. the largest
D. large

6 – Many people were injured when the building ____________________ .

A. erupted
B. destroyed
C. struck
D. collapsed

7 – Anna was the woman _________________ first thought of Mother’s day.

A. that
B. who she
C. whom
D. whose

8 – Tuan was an effective ____________________ in that volunteer programme.

A. active
B. activis
C. actor
D. Activity

Ex 2. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets: 0,5 pts

1. If the sun (shine) _______________, we will walk to the town.

2. She likes (give)___________________ lucky money on Tet by her relatives.

Ex 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets: 0,5 pts

1. We should protect the __________________ resources . (nature)

2. He drives ____________________, so he never causes the accidents. (care )

Part IV. Read (2,0 pts)

Ex 1. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given (1,0 pt )

water also off fresh

Some of us use (1)__________ wastefully. Water is necessary for us because we cannot live without water. Moreover, the waste chemicals from factories are now seriously polluting water on the Earth. If the water goes on being polluted , we will have no (2) __________ water to use. Therefore, we have to protect the water source as well as save it. Do you know that a dripping

faucet can waste 500 liters of water a month? So we should turn (3) __________ the faucet carefully after using. That means not only can you save water but (4) __________ money.

Ex 2. Read the passage and answers the questions (1,0 pts)

There many celebrations though out the year in Viet Nam, but Tet or Lunar New Year is the most important celebrations for Vietnamese people. Tet usually occurs in late January or early February. A few days before Tet is the time for people to clean and decorate their home. During Tet people old and young enjoy special food cooked on the occasion of Tet . It is also the time for family members to gather.

Questions

1. Is the Lunar New Year an other name for Tet

……………………………………………………………………………………….…

2. When does Tet usually occur?

…………………………………………………………………………………….……

3. What do people often do before Tet ?

……………………………………………………………………………………..……

4. Is Tet the time for family to gather ?

………………………………………………………………………………….……..…

Part V.Writing (2pts)

Ex 1 . Rewrite these sentenceswithout changing their meanings ( 1.0 pts).

1. If we don’t use electricity economically , we will have to pay enormous bills.

=> Unless…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. What about visiting Voi mountain next Sunday?

=> I suggest that we …………………………………………………………………………………….

3. The farmers have recycled the waste of the house to make dung for thousands years

=> The waste of the house …………………………………………………………………………….

4. He said to me: “ What do you watch? ”

=> He asked me ……………………………………………………………………

Ex 2 . Combine the sentences , using relative pronouns (1,0 pt)

1. The girl is very active . She is talking with a teacher over there.

=> ………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. The house is very comfortable. They are living in the house.

=> …………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Do you know the man ? His son is my best friend.

=> ………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. Sunday is a day . Students don’t have to go to school on the day.

=> ………………………………………………………………………

2.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 9

Câu	Đáp án	Điểm
Part I. Listening	Ex 1. Listen and fill the missing words	( 1,0 pts)
(2,0 pt)	1 – A; ;	0,25
	2 – B;	0,25
	3 – A;	0,25
	4 – B; 5 – C;	0,25
	Ex 2. Listen to the dialogue	( 1,0 pt)
	1. Gibson	0,25
	2. 0404668886	0,25
	3. Two/2	0,25
	4. One/1 5. 160 $ 6. (city) tour	0,25
Part II. Phonetic		(1 pt)
A (0,5 pt)	1. A	0,25
	2. B	0,25
B ( 0,5pt)	1. C	0,25
	2. D	0,25
Part III. Language focus		(3 pts)
(3 pts)	Ex 1. Choose the best answer	(2 pts)
	1. A
	2. B	0,25
	3. D	0,25
	4. C	0,25
	5. C	0,25
	6. D	0,25
	7. A	0,25
	8. B	0,25
	Ex 2. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets	( 0,5 pt)
	1. shines	0,25
	2. being given	0,25
	Ex 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets	( 0,5 pt)
	1. natural	0,25
	2. carefully	0,25
Part IV. Reading		( 2,0 pts)
(2,0 pts)	Ex 1. Fill each gap with a suitable word/ phrase from the box [	( 1,0 pt)
	1 – water	0,25
	2 – fresh	0,25
	3 – off	0,25
	4 – also	0,25
	Ex 2. Answer these questions	( 1,0 pt)
	1. Yes , it is	0,25
	2. Tet usually occurs in late January or early February	0,25
	3. They clean and decorate their home	0,25
	4. Yes , it is	0,25

Part V. Writing	.	(2,0 pts)
	Ex 1. Rewrite these sentences with the words given	0,25
	1. Unless we use electricity economically , we will have to pay enormous bills.	0,25
	2. I suggest that we should visit Voi mountain next Sunday	0,25
	3. The waste of the house has been recycled to make dung for thousands years	0,25
	4. He asked me what I watched	0,25
	Ex 2 . Combine the sentences , using relative pronouns
	1. The girl who is talking with a teacher overthere is very active	0,25
	2. The house (where /in which) they are living is very comfortable	0,25
	3. Do you know the man whose son is my best friend?	0,25
	4. Sunday is a day when students don’t have to go to school	0,25

2.3 Ma trận đề thi học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 9

Cấp độ Chủ đề	Nhận biết		Thông hiểu		Vận dụng				Cộng
					Cấp độ thấp		Cấp độ cao
	tnkq	tl	tnkq	tl	tnkq	tl	tnkq	tl
I. Listening	Chuẩn KT,KN	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)
Số câu: 8 Số điểm 2,0 Tỉ lệ 20%		4 1,0		4 1,0					số câu: 8 2,0 điểm = 20%
II. Pronuciation	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)
Số câu: 4 Số điểm 1,0 Tỉ lệ 10%	2 0,5		2 0,5						số câu: 4 1,0 điểm = 10%
III. Language focus	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)
Số câu: 12 Số điểm 3,0 Tỉ lệ 30%	4 1,0		4 1,0		2 0,5		2 0,5		Số câu: 12 3,0 điểm = 30%
IV. Reading	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)
Số câu: 8 Số điểm 2,0 Tỉ lệ 20%				4 1,0		4 1,0			Số câu: 8 2,0 điểm = 20%
V. Writing	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)	(ch)
Số câu: 8 Số điểm 2.0 Tỉ lệ 20%		2 0,5		2 0,5		2 0,5		2 0,5	Số câu: 8 2,0 điểm = 20%
Tổng số : 40 Tổng điểm: 10 Tỉ lệ 100%	Tổng số câu: 12 Số điểm: 3,0 30%		Tổng số câu: 16 Số điểm: 4,0 40 %		Tổng số câu: 8 Số điểm: 2,0 20%		Tổng số câu:4 Số điểm: 1,0 10%		Tổng số: 40 Số điểm: 10 100%

………….

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