Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới)

Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới)

Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2023 – 2024 gồm 12 đề thi sách Kết nối tri thức, Cánh diều, Chân trời sáng tạo, i-Learn Smart World, có đáp án, hướng dẫn chấm, bảng ma trận và đặc tả đề thi học kì 1 kèm theo. Qua đó, giúp các em học sinh nắm vững cấu trúc đề thi, luyện giải đề thật thành thạo.

Bạn đang đọc: Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới)

Với 12 Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 sách mới, còn giúp thầy cô nhanh chóng xây dựng đề kiểm tra cuối học kì 1 năm 2023 – 2024 cho học sinh theo chương trình mới. Bên cạnh đó, có thể tham khảo thêm đề thi học kì 1 môn Ngữ văn, Toán. Vậy mời thầy cô và các em cùng theo dõi bài viết dưới đây của Download.vn:

Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 sách mới

    1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống

    1.1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success

    A. LISTENING

    Listen to Dave talking about his plan for the next week and decide if the statements below are True (T) or False (F).

    1. Dave doesn’t have any class at school next week.

    2. Dave’s piano class starts at 7 pm.

    3. His piano teacher comes from Australia.

    4. Dave is going swimming with his friend.

    5. Dave is going to Henry’s party with his brother.

    B. PHONETICS

    I. Choose the word that has underlined part pronounced differently from the others

    1. A. posters B. chairs C. takes D. drives

    2. A. cheap B. peaceful C. between D. interview

    3. A. month B. post C. homework D. hope

    II. What is the odd one out?

    4. A. curly B. creative C. friendly D. confident

    5. A. amazing B. interesting C. doing D. boring

    C. USE OF ENGLISH

    I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences

    1. His two daughters are named___________ his favorite singers.

    A. with
    B. for
    C. after
    D. at

    2. My neighborhood is very ________ because everything is near my house.

    A. convenient
    B. exciting
    C. comfortable
    D. inconvenient

    3. – “Would you like to come to Mai’s birthday party with us?” – “_______________.”

    A. Yes, I would
    B. Yes, I’d love to
    C. Yes, thanks
    D. Thank you very much

    4. My car is yours.

    A. more fast and economical than
    B. more fast and more economical than
    C. faster and economical as
    D. faster and more economical than

    5. I __________ to the football match tonight. I am busy.

    A. come
    B. like coming
    C. am not coming
    D. am coming

    6. Da Lat is very nice. There ________ a lot of things to see and lots of tourists too.

    A. is
    B. are
    C. have
    D. has

    7. There ______ a big table and some chairs ______ the right _____ the bed.

    A. is-on-in
    B. are-on-of
    C. are-in-on
    D. is-to-of

    8. My close friend is ready ____________ things with her classmates.

    A. share
    B. to share
    C. shares
    D. sharing

    9. Tam is very pretty with her __________.

    A. brown long hair
    B. hair long brown
    C. long brown hair
    D. brown hair long

    10. _________ your teacher often give you homework?

    A. Is
    B. Are
    C. Do
    D. Does

    11. You____________ pick up flowers in the school garden.

    A. must
    B. mustn’t
    C. can’t
    D. should

    II. Give the correct form of the verb in the blank

    a. My brother likes (12. live) ____________ in the city because the city is more modern and convenient.

    b. What do you usually do at break time, Duy and Phong?

    – I play football but my friend Phong (13. not play) ________ football. He (14. read) _________ in the library.

    c. It’s cold! The students (15. wear) _______________ warm clothes.

    D. READING

    I. Read the email, choose the best answer A, B, c or D to the questions below.

    1. The e-mail is about ……………………………………

    A. An’s best friend at school
    B. An’s grandma
    C. An’s math teacher
    D. An’s mom

    2. …………………………………… is his grandma’s hobby.

    A. Helping An do his homework
    B. Watering flowers
    C. Telling stories
    D. Listen to music

    3. An usually listens to his grandma’s stories in the …………………………

    A. morning
    B. afternoon
    C. evening
    D. at noon

    4. An likes his grandma best because ……………………………………

    A. she lives with his family.
    B. she gets up early every morning
    C. she always listens to him when he’s sad.
    D. she is a Maths teacher.

    II. Choose the word (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each of the blank spaces.

    We live in the suburbs, very far (1)_________ the city and it’s just too quiet! There aren’t (2) shops, and there are certainly (3) clubs or theaters. (4) a lot of parks, good schools, and very (5) crime: nothing ever really happens here. I would really love (6) downtown.

    (suburb (n): ngoại thành)

    1. A. from B. for C. to D. of

    2. A. much B. many C. more D. a lot of

    3. A. not B. nothing C. none D. no

    4. A. Has B. Having C. There is D. There are

    5. A. little B. less C. many D. lots of

    6. A. to live B. living C. to living D. a & b

    E. WRITING

    I. Rewrite the sentence, use the suggested words/phrases. Stay the meaning the same.

    1. The weather is very awful.

    What _____________________________________________________ !

    2. Country life isn’t as interesting as city life.

    City life is ___________________________________________________

    3.Why don’t we go out for a drink now?

    How _____________________________________________________?

    II. Rearrange the words to make a meaningful sentence.

    1. camping/ is/ next/ my/ class/ in/ weekend/Cuc Phuong forest/ going/.

    ______________________________________

    2. friendly/ because/ don’t/ I/ Joana/ she/ like/ isn’t

    _______________________________________

    1.2. Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

    A. LISTENING

    Listen to Dave talking about his plan for the next week and decide if the statements below are True (T) or False (F).

    1. T 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. T

    B. PHONETICS

    Choose the word that has underlined part pronounced differently from the others

    1. C 2. D 3. A

    What is the odd one out?

    4. A 5. C

    C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

    I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences

    1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B

    7. D 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. B

    II. Give the correct form of the verb in the blank

    12. living 13. doesn’t (does not) play 14. reads 15. are wearing

    D. READING

    I. Read the email, choose the best answer A, B, c or D to the questions below.

    1. B 2.B 3.C 4.C

    II. Choose the word (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each of the blank spaces.

    1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. A

    E. WRITING:

    1. Rewrite the sentence, use the suggested words/phrases. Stay the meaning the same.

    1. What awful weather!

    2. City life is more interesting than country life.

    3. How about going out for a drink now?

    2. Rearrange the words to make a meaningful sentence.

    1. My class is going camping in Cuc Phuong forest next weekend.

    2. I don’t like Joana because she isn’t friendly.

    1.3. Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

    Kỹ năng Dạng bài CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC

    Tổng số câu

    NHẬN BIẾT THÔNG HIỂU VẬN DỤNG VẬN DỤNG CAO
    Trắc nghiệm Tự luận TN TL TN TL TN TL

    Pronunciation

    (0.5pts)

    Stress

    Q1, 2

    2

    Writing (Use of English)

    (2pts)

    Vocabulary Preposition

    Grammar

    Q5, 8

    Q3, 4

    Q6, 7

    6

    Signs

    Q11, 12

    2

    Speaking

    (0.5pts)

    Q9, 10

    2

    Reading (3pts)

    Reading comprehension

    Q17

    Q13, 14

    Q15, 16

    Q18

    6

    Guided cloze

    Q19, 21

    Q20, 24

    Q22

    Q23

    6

    Writing (4pts)

    Verb form/ verb tense

    (1pt)

    Q25

    Q26

    Q27

    Q28

    4

    Rearrange the words

    (0.6pt)

    Q29

    Q30

    2

    Make questions

    (1.2pts)

    Q31, 32

    Q33

    3

    Sentence transformation

    (1.2pts)

    Q34, 35

    Q36

    3

    Tổng

    (10pts)

    7

    6

    8

    3

    5

    3

    2

    2

    13 câu

    36%

    11 câu

    31%

    8 câu

    22%

    4 câu

    11%

    36

    câu

    2. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Chân trời sáng tạo

    2.1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 – Friends Plus

    I. Listen and draw lines

    II. Circle and Odd one out.

    1. A. bike B. bus C. plane D. photo

    2. A. beautiful B. big C. market D. noisy

    3. A. train B. post office C. clinic D. supermarket

    4. A. mother B. father C. brother D. doctor

    III. Give the correct form of verbs in bracket.

    1. They (be) ………………. engineers.

    2. She (live) ………………. on Tran Phu street

    3. Phong (not/ listen)………………………… to the music every day.

    4. Look! Minh (play) ………………. soccer.

    IV. Choose the correct answer

    1. Hi. My name is John. What’s__________name? – My name’s Lan.

    A. my
    B. her
    C. his
    D. your

    2. How many books does Ba___________? – He has eight.

    A. have
    B. has
    C. to have
    D. having

    3. Does Lan have Math on Tuesday? – No, she___________.

    A. don’t
    B. doesn’t
    C. hasn’t
    D. haven’t

    4. She ___________ her teeth every evening.

    A. brush
    B. to brush
    C. brushing
    D. brushes

    5. What is she doing ? – She __________ to music.

    A. listen
    B. listens
    C. is listening
    D. listening

    6. He has breakfast _____ six o’clock.

    A. in
    B. at
    C. on
    D. for

    7. My school is ________ to a hospital.

    A. near
    B. next
    C. beside
    D. between

    8. Where is ________ school? – It’s in the country.

    A. Nams’
    B. Nam
    C. the Nam’s
    D. Nam’s

    V. Read the passage and choose True (T) or False (F)

    My name is Mai. I am a student at Thang Long School. It is in the country. Every morning, I get up at five o’clock. I take a shower, have breakfast and go to school at 6.30. I have classes from 7.00 to 11.15. At 12.00 I have lunch at school. In the afternoon, I do the housework and play volleyball. In the evening, I watch television or listen to music and do my homework. I go to bed at 10.30.

    1. Mai is a student at Thang Long School.

    2. Mai goes to school at half past six.

    3. She does the housework and plays volleyball in the afternoon.

    4. In the evening, she doesn’t watch television.

    VI. Rearrange these words to make complete sentences.

    1. lives/ he/ near/post-office/the

    ..………………………….…………………….…………………….………..……

    2. listens / Nam / after / to / school / music .

    ..………………………….…………………….…………………….………..……

    3. school / city / is / my / the / in

    ..………………………….…………………….…………………….………..……

    2.2 Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

    Nội dung Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Tổng
    TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL
    Speaking 4 4
    Listening 4 4
    Reading 7 3 4 4 18
    Writing 2 2 4
    % điểm 20% 40% 30% 10% 100%

    3. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Cánh diều

    3.1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 – Explore English

    I. Chọn từ thích hợp điền vào chỗ trống (2,5đ)

    1. What’s his name?………..is Kien.

    a. my name

    b. her name

    c. his name

    d. She

    2. This is Lan . …………… is ten years old.

    a. He

    b. They

    c. She

    d. It

    3. Mai and Nga……………in the classroom.

    a. is

    b. Am

    c. are

    d. a and b

    4. ……..do you live?

    a. where

    b. How

    c. What

    d. who

    5. Our mother ……………in the country.

    a. live

    b. lives

    c. are

    d. be

    6. That is her father ……….is forty years old.

    a. He

    b. They

    c. She

    d. It

    7. Are they students?

    a. yes, they are not

    b. Yes, they are

    c. No, he is not

    d. No, they are

    8. How many………..are there?

    a. classroom

    b. classrooms

    c. a classroom

    d. a and c

    9 ………..is a cloc’k in my livingroom.

    a. These

    b. That

    c. There

    d. They

    10. We live ………………65 Ham Nghi Street.

    a. in

    b. at

    c. on

    d. the

    II. Tìm câu trả lời cho các câu hỏi ở cột A (2đ)

    A B

    1. Is this your pen?

    2. How are you?

    3. Where do you live?

    4. How old are you?

    5. What’s that?

    6. What’s your name?

    7. How do you spell your name?

    8. What do you do?

    9. How many people are there?

    a. It’s a book

    b. I’m a student.

    c. Yes, this is my pen.

    d. There are four.

    e. In Da Nang City

    f. Fine, thanks.

    g .I’m twelve years old.

    h. My name’s Loan.

    i. N-G-A

    1-…C…2-……..3-……4-……..5-………6-……….7-……….8-……..9-………..

    III. Đọc kỹ đoạn văn rồi trả lời các câu hỏi (2đ)

    My name is Mai. I ‘m twelve years old. There are five people in my family: my father, my mother, my brother, my sister and me. My father is forty five years old. He’s a doctor. And my mother is forty. She is a doctor, too. My brother is Tam, he is fifteen years old. My sister is Hoa. She is seven years old. They’re both students.

    1. How many people are there in Mai’s family?

    ……………………………………………

    2. How old is her father?

    …………………………………………….

    3. What does her father do?

    ……………………………………………

    4. How old is her mother?

    ……………………………………………

    5. What does her mother do?

    …………………………………………

    6.. What’s her brother’s name?

    …………………………………………

    7.. How old is her brother?

    …………………………………………

    8. Is he a student?

    …………………………………………

    IV. Sắp xếp thành câu hoàn chỉnh (2đ)

    1.and/Hung/is/am/Lan/Mr./this/I. ………………………………………………..

    2.evening/are/Giang/you/good/how/Miss/?………………………………………

    3. name/you/where/is/do/what/and/live/your/?…………………………………..

    4.we/street/on/live/Nguyen Trai/…….…………………………………………..

    V. Thực hiện các phép tinh sau,ghi kế quả bằng chữ số (1,5đ)

    1. Ten + fifteen =

    2. Three x six =

    3. (Two + seven + one) : two

    3.2. Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Cánh diều

    Nội dung Chuẩn kiến thức Nhận biết TN TL Thông hiểu TN TL Vận dụng TN TL CAO Tổng

    Listen

    (2 đoạn)

    -T/ F ( 4 câu)

    -Choose the best answers( 4 câu)

    4

    1

    4

    1

    8

    2

    1.5

    LF

    unit 1- unit 3

    -Vocabulary

    + sound( 2 câu)

    + stress( 2 câu)

    + there is/are

    ( 1 câu)

    + present continuous tense with future meaning (1 câu)

    + preposition (1 câu)

    + find the closest meaning(1 câu)

    + find the opposite meaning(1 câu)

    + find mistake (3 cau)

    8

    2

    4

    1

    12

    3

    Read

    (2 đoạn)

    unit 1-3

    -cloze test(4 câu)

    Unit 1-3

    MC(4 câu)

    – Answer the questions

    4

    1

    4

    1

    1.5

    8

    2

    Write

    unit 1 – unit 3

    – Rewite the sentences with the same meaning ( 3 câu)

    – write an e-mail to a friend telling about your house.

    (50-70 words)

    ( give guide questions )

    4 2

    2 1

    6

    3

    4. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World

    4.1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World

    UBND HUYỆN_________
    PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

    ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I
    Năm học 2023 – 2024

    MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6
    Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

    TA6 SMART WORLD – SEMESTER 1 TEST
    Time allotted: 60 minutes

    I. Listening:

    You will hear a teacher talking to her new class. Listen and complete each question with ONE word and/or a number. (1 point)

    Name of teacher: Susan Brown

    Lessons start at: (1)………………………………………………………………………………………

    In the morning, everybody studies (2) English, science and………………………………..

    Food for lunch (3) sandwich, ……………………………….. and orange juice

    On Sunday ………………………………..(4) show

    II. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)

    5. A. noodles B. dessert C. order D. sweater

    6. A. performance B. festival C. library D. customer

    III. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)

    7. We ________ the sausages on the barbecue. They taste wonderful.

    A. fry
    B. serve
    C. pour
    D. grill

    8. Would you like to see the dessert ________?

    A. menu
    B. order
    C. tip
    D. service

    9. There’s a ________ on TV tonight. You can see many dancers in their traditional clothes.

    A. fashion show
    B. tug of war
    C. dance performance
    D. fireworks

    10. Do you have this skirt ________ a medium size?

    A. with
    B. on
    C. for
    D. in

    11. I like ________ shoes by the window. Do you have ________ in black?

    A. that/ it
    B. this/ them
    C. those/ them
    D. these/ it

    12. Would you like ________ bread and cheese for lunch?

    A. a
    B. some
    C. any
    D. the

    13. Waiter: “What would you like for dessert?”

    Customer: “________”

    A. I’d like an omelet.
    B. A cupcake, please.
    C. I don’t like coffee.
    D. I prefer tea.

    14. Customer: “Do you have this dress in white?”

    Sales assistant: “________”

    A. Yes, I am.
    B. Yes, it is.
    C. Yes, here you are.
    D. Yes, it’s OK.

    15. What does the sign mean?

    Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới)

    A. There is a lot of food here.
    B. Please order your food here.
    C. You can find your food here.
    D. Please eat and drink here.

    16. What does the sign mean?

    Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023 – 2024 (Sách mới)

    A. Please be quiet here.
    B. Please don’t play here.
    C. There aren’t any people here.
    D. You can’t be here.

    IV. Reading comprehension.

    Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)

    My name is Quanzhou and I’m from China. My favorite time of the year is Chinese New Year. People decorate houses and streets with lanterns and flowers many days before New Year festival. Everything is red and gold, because they’re the lucky colors. People give children lucky money in red envelops, and they also give friends mandarin oranges for good luck. The New Year’s Eve dinner is called Reunion Dinner. People in the family sit together, talk and enjoy the traditional food. One special dish is Nian Gao. People make Nian Gao with sugar and rice. We also eat fish, chicken and dumplings. After dinner we watch the New Year music performance on TV. At midnight, we can see fireworks in the sky. The colors are amazing. There are parades and lion dances in the streets, too.

    * Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point)

    True or False

    17. People decorate their houses during New Year festivals.

    18. Red and gold are lucky colors in China.

    19. Children receive lucky money in red envelops.

    20. People eat fish, chicken and mandarin oranges for Reunion Dinner.

    ……………………

    ……………………

    ……………………

    ……………………

    * Choose the word or phrase that best answers each question. (0.5 points)

    21. What do people give to friends for good luck?

    A. Nian Gao
    B. mandarin oranges
    C. money
    D. flowers

    22. What do people make Nian Gao with?

    A. fish and chicken
    B. rice and dumplings
    C. sugar and rice
    D. fish and rice

    V. Cloze test

    Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

    My best friend is Joe. He’s nine years old like me. Joe lives in a small house with his parents. Joe’s tall and quite fat. He (23) __________ big brown eyes and short hair. Joe and I spend a lot of time together. We both like sports. We often (24) __________ martial arts after school. We are in the school karate club. Joe is a great friend. He’s very (25) __________. He helps me when I can’t do my homework. He’s also good at magic. He’s going to sign up for the (26) __________ next month. Next Saturday is his birthday. We (27) __________ a party with chicken pasta and cola. I’ll buy a T-shirt for him. His favorite color is blue, so I’m going to look for a beautiful one (28) __________ blue.

    23. A. wears B. has C. is D. looks

    24. A. do B. play C. go D. join

    25. A. funny B. friendly C. selfish D. helpful

    26. A. tug of war B. puppet C. talent show D. fashion show

    27. A. are having B. has C. have D. having

    28. A. on B. for C. with D. in

    VI. Verb forms and verb tenses

    Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)

    29. My sister and I _________ (go) shopping tomorrow. Do you want to join us?

    30. Harry _________ (practice) the piano on Fridays.

    31. What time _______ the festival _________ (open)?

    32. I like _________ (read) at home, in my bedroom.

    VII. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)

    33. often/ with/ on/ play/ I/ weekends/ hopscotch/ my/ the/ friends/./

    ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

    34. children/ on/ costumes/ trick-or-treating/ Halloween/ wear/ go/ and/./

    ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

    VIII. Make questions for the underlined part. (0.75 points)

    35. Sam rarely goes running.

    ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

    36. The new teacher is very kind and funny.

    ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

    37. This jacket is twenty dollars.

    ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

    IX. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.75 points)

    38. I want to have a cheeseburger.

    → I would ……………………………………………………..…………………………………

    39. Why don’t we go to the movie theater?

    → Let’s ….……………………………………..………………………………

    40. Simon likes playing soccer in his free time.

    → Simon’s hobby……………………..……………………………………..………………………

    EXTRA QUESTIONS

    Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (0.5 points)

    1. Andy is very lazy. He never does ________ housework.

    A. some
    B. a
    C. any
    D. lot

    2. First, you will ________ the steak and chips in hot oil.

    A. make
    B. grill
    C. taste
    D. fry

    Cloze test:

    Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

    My name is Paulo and I live in Rio de Janeiro. My father is an engineer and my mum (1) __________ in a local hospital. I have a brother. We live in an apartment in the city. There are two bedrooms. One bedroom is for my parents, so I share the other with my brother. We also have a kitchen, a living room and a bathroom. (2) __________ a garage, so my father parks his car in front of the house. When I want to be on my own, I go out. We live (3) __________ the park. I often meet my friends there and we (4) __________ hide and seek. Rio is (5) __________ exciting city. Every year there’s Carnival festival. It’s a huge street party with parades, music and dancing performances. People wear masks and colorful (6) __________. They play drums and dance samba until 4a.m.

    1. A. is work B. works C. work D. working

    2. A. There is B. It is C. There isn’t D. It doesn’t have

    3. A. opposite B. in front C. between D. next

    4. A. go B. do C. play D. have

    5. A. a B. some C. any D. an

    6. A. clothe B. costumes C. gifts D. sizes

    Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.25 points)

    1. clubs/ usually/ you/ after/ do/ go/ school/ What/ to/?/

    ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

    Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.25 points)

    1. How much are these jeans?

    → What is ……………………………..……………………………………..………………………

    4.2. Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

    I. Listening:

    (1) 9 (9 a.m./ 9 o’ clock)

    (2) math

    (3) soup

    (4) puppet

    II. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)

    5. B; 6: A

    III. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)

    7. D; 8: A; 9: C; 10: D; 11: C; 12: B; 13; A; 14: C; 15: B; 16: A;

    IV. Reading comprehension.

    * Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point)

    17. False

    18. True

    19. True

    20. False

    * Choose the word or phrase that best answers each question. (0.5 points)

    21. B; 22: C

    V. Cloze test

    23: B; 24: A; 25: D; 26: C; 27: A; 28: D

    VI. Verb forms and verb tenses

    29. are going

    30. practices

    31. does; open

    32. reading

    VII. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)

    33. I often play hopscotch with my friends on the weekends.

    34. Children wear costumes and go trick-or-treating on Halloween./ On Halloween, children wear costumes and go trick-or-treating.

    VIII. Make questions for the underlined part. (0.75 points)

    35. How often does Sam go running?

    36. What is the new teacher like?

    37. How much is this jacket? / How much does this jacket cost?

    IX. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.75 points)

    38. I would like to have a cheeseburger.

    39. Let’s go to the movie theater.

    40. Simon’s hobby is playing soccer (in his free time).

    EXTRA QUESTIONS

    Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (0.5 points)

    1: C; 2: D

    Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

    1: B; 2: C; 3: A; 4: C; 5: D; 6: B

    Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.25 points)

    → What clubs do you usually go to after school?

    Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.25 points)

    → What is the price of these jeans?

    Tapescripts:

    Good morning and welcome to our first day at Lincoln School. My name’s Susan Brown and I’m your teacher for this year. I’d like you to listen carefully to this important information. You all must be here in the classroom at 8:45 in the morning. I’ll check your names and the first lesson begins at 9 o’ clock. In the morning, you are all together in this classroom for English, Science and Math. Lunch break is at 12 o’ clock. Students can have lunch in the canteen. You can have sandwiches, soup and orange juice. After lunch, please get back to your classroom to study art and music. If you love performing, you can join the drama club on Saturdays. To join the club, sign up on the noticeboard. And finally, there’s a puppet show this Sunday. Don’t forget to come. I hope you’ll enjoy it. I think that’s all for now. Do you have any questions?

    4.3. Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World

    CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC

    Tổng số câu

    Kỹ năng

    Dạng bài

    NHẬN BIẾT

    THÔNG HIỂU

    VẬN DỤNG

    VẬN DỤNG CAO

    Trắc nghiệm

    Tự luận

    TN

    TL

    TN

    TL

    TN

    TL

    Listening

    (1pt)

    Q2,3

    Q1,4

    4

    Pronunciation

    (0.5pts)

    Stress

    Q5,6

    2

    Writing (Use of English)

    (2pts)

    Vocabulary

    Preposition

    Grammar

    Q10

    Q11,12

    Q7,9

    Q8

    6

    Signs

    Q15,16

    2

    Speaking

    (0.5pts)

    Q13,14

    2

    Reading

    (3pts)

    Reading comprehension

    Q19

    Q21,22

    Q18

    Q20

    Q17

    6

    Guided cloze

    Q27,28

    Q23,24

    Q26

    Q25

    6

    Writing

    (3pts)

    Verb form/ verb tense

    (1pt)

    Q32

    Q30

    Q29, 31

    4

    Rearrange the words

    (0.5pt)

    Q33

    Q34

    2

    Make questions

    (0.75pt)

    Q35,36

    Q37

    3

    Sentence transformation

    (0.75pt)

    Q38,39

    Q40

    3

    Tổng

    (10pts)

    6

    8

    8

    5

    3

    6

    2

    2

    14 câu

    35%

    13 câu

    32.5%

    9 câu

    22.5%

    4 câu

    10%

    40 câu

    Trắc nghiệm: 19 câu (47.5%)

    Tự luận: 21 câu (52.5%)

    All sentences: 0.25đ/ câu

    10 EXTRA SENTENCES:

    CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC

    Tổng số câu

    Kỹ năng

    Dạng bài

    NHẬN BIẾT

    THÔNG HIỂU

    VẬN DỤNG

    VẬN DỤNG CAO

    Trắc nghiệm

    Tự luận

    TN

    TL

    TN

    TL

    TN

    TL

    Use of English

    Q1,2

    1

    Reading

    Cloze test

    Q1,5

    Q3,4,6

    Q2

    6

    Writing

    Rearrange the sentences

    Q1

    2

    Make question

    Q1

    …………….

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